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[New Updated Questions From Google Drive] 100% Pass Rate CCIE Data Center v2.0 400-151 Dumps | Verified 400-151 Exam Video Questions And Answers with A High Score

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Exam Code: 400-151
Exam Name: CCIE Data Center Written Exam v2.0
Updated: Aug 05, 2017
Q&As: 232



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Share some Cisco Specialist 400-151 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

1.What is the best reason for using a standard greeting when answering telephone calls?
A. Using a standard greeting complies with Service Desk standards.
B. Using a standard greeting ensures consistent service.
C. Using a standard greeting makes the customer feel humble.
D. Using a standard greeting prevents individuals developing their own greetings.
400-151 exam Answer: B
2.What is a best practice for demonstrating personal accountability in your work.?
A. Blame others for mistakes.
B. Never admit that you made a mistake.
C. Perform your duties in a manner that meets with company policy.
D. Work according to your mood.
Answer: C
3.What is a best practice to follow when documenting an Incident?
A. Always take a break before you write anything down.
B. Avoid making negative references about the customer in the documentation.
C. Make sure that others know how the customer treated you by documenting the interaction.
D. Use emoticons to communicate the personality of a customer.
400-151 dumps Answer: B
4.What factor is most important in determining the priority of an Incident?
A. The caller connection to the Service Desk.
B. The caller emotional state.
C. The Incident impact on the business.
D. The Incident impact on the Service Desk.
Answer: C
5.What is a benefit of teamwork?
A. Better time management.
B. Higher employee morale.
C. Improved conformity.
D. Increased competition.
400-151 pdf Answer: B
6.What is a best practice for reducing conflict?
A. Agree with the customer.
B. Interject your opinion into the conversation.
C. Let the customer know that you are in charge.
D. Show the customer respect.
Answer: D
7.What information must be logged for every Incident?
A. A corrected version of the customer description of the Incident.

B. A note aboutthe customer preferred desksidetechnician.
C. Any commitments made to the customer.
D. Your opinion about the customer technical expertise.
400-151 vce Answer: C
8.Which statement best describes a good leader?
A. Good leaders demonstrate absolute control over their teams.
B. Good leaders do not need to offer incentives.
C. Good leaders encourage initiative.
D. Good leaders make all the decisions for their staff.
Answer: C
9.When you have a call that cannot be resolved, what is the last step you will take prior to disengaging
from the customer?
A. Confirm the details provided by the customer.
B. Determine the priority of the Incident.
C. Set the customer expectation for the next contact.
D. Verify the customer eligibility for service.
400-151 exam Answer: C
10.What is the best description of your role in supporting customers?
A. Avoid confrontation at all costs.
B. Deliver consistent, high quality support.
C. Escalate calls as appropriate.
D. Minimise talk time.
Answer: B
11.Your help desk/Service Desk wishes to become a model for best practice, what is one of the main
sources of excellent information and advice to help achieve this?
A. A web master magazine.
B. Senior management meetings.
C. Knowledge Centred Support. D.
The marketing department.
400-151 dumps Answer: C
12.What is the best way of using silent time effectively?
A. Build a rapport with your customer.
B. Check your e-mail.
C. Identify the best time for your break.
D. Write an e-mail to a colleague.
Answer: A
13.Which of the following techniques is the best one for reducing and eliminating conflict during a call?
A. Match the customer attitude.

B. Refrain from interrupting the customer.
C. Stop using the customer name.
D. Tell the customer you feel sorry for them.
400-151 pdf Answer: B
14.What type of question will best encourage a customer to talk more about their Incident?
A. Closed questions.
B. Open questions.
C. Technical questions.
D. Personal questions.
Answer: B
15.Which is a common physical symptom of stress?
A. You are more susceptible to colds.
B. You rarely take lunch breaks.
C. You work longer hours.
D. Your colleagues all seem busy.
400-151 vce Answer: A

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Security Expert

[New Updated Questions] Secrets To High Success Rate Fortinet Certification NSE4 Dumps Exam Video with Google Drive

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Exam Code: NSE4
Exam Name: Fortinet Network Security Expert 4 Written Exam (400)
Updated: Jul 13, 2017
Q&As: 274

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Question No : 1


Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
B. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
C. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
NSE4 dumps 
Answer: B

Question No : 2

Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Fully ducted supply, flooded return
B. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: A

Question No : 3  Click the Exhibit button.

Which air distribution method is displayed in the exhibit?
A. Flooded supply, flooded return
B. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
NSE4 exam 
Answer: A

Question No : 4 What is the highest cost UPS configuration?
A. System + system
B. Parallel redundant
C. Isolated redundant
D. Distributed redundant
Answer: A

Question No : 5 What is the difference between an undervoltage and a sag?
A. A sag lasts less time than an undervoltage condition.
B. A sag has less of a voltage drop than an undervoltage condition.
C. A sag is due to downstream loads and undervoltage is due to the power source.
D. A sag occurs in low voltage distribution and undervoltage occurs in high voltage
NSE4 pdf Answer: A

Question No : 6 What is required for the transfer of heat from one object to another?
A. A difference in airflow
B. A difference in volume
C. A difference in pressure
D. A difference in temperature
Answer: D

Question No : 7 What does the CFD acronym stand for?
A. Certified Field Dichotomy
B. Circular Flow Determination
C. Computational Finite Deviation

D. Computational Fluid Dynamics
NSE4 vce Answer: D

Question No : 8 The rear of an IT equipment rack is fitted with a duct that is connected to a drop ceiling
plenum; the plenum is connected by a duct to the perimeter CRAC unit. The CRAC unit
discharges air into a raised floor. The IT equipment rack is located above a hole in the
raised floor which allows conditioned air to enter the rack.
This is an example of which type of air distribution system?
A. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
B. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Fully ducted supply, fully ducted return
Answer: D

Question No : 9 Cooling towers are a typical component of which heat rejection system?
A. Water cooled system
B. Glycol cooled system
C. Air cooled split system
D. Air cooled self-contained system
NSE4 dumps Answer: A

Question No : 10 Which type of humidification system uses quartz lamps extended over an open pool of water to release water vapor?
A. Infrared humidifier
B. Ultrasonic humidifier
C. Electromagnetic humidifier
D. Steam canister humidifier
Answer: A

Question No : 11 What is an advantage of choosing a four-post open frame rack over a two-post open fram
A. Lower cost
B. Smaller footprint
C. Easier assembly
D. Increased strength
NSE4 exam Answer: D

Question No : 12 How do enclosures improve rack system cooling?
A. By improving natural air flow
B. By improving fire suppression
C. By allowing hot and cold air to mix together
D. By preventing hot and cold air from mixing together
Answer: D

Question No : 13 An infrared scan of cabling can detect what two problems? (Choose two.)
A. An overloaded circuit
B. A loose connection
C. Compatibility errors
D. Electrical interference
NSE4 pdf Answer: A,B

Question No : 14 What are three benefits of Inergen? (Choose three.)
A. It is non-conductive.
B. It has zero ozone depletion potential.
C. It has a low pressure delivery system.
D. It requires less storage tanks than Halon.
E. It is safe to discharge in an occupied area.
Answer: A,B,E

Question No : 15 What is a component of the network-critical physical infrastructure (NCPI)?
A. Voice over IP
B. Fire protection
C. Office supplies
D. Desktop application software
NSE4 vce Answer: B

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Server and Storage Systems

[New Updated Questions] Best Oracle Taleo 1Z0-443 Dumps Preparation Materials | Valid 1Z0-443 PDF Exam on Vimeo

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Exam Code: 1Z0-443
Exam Name: Oracle Taleo Learn Cloud Service 2016 Implementation Essentials
Updated: Jul 02, 2017
Q&As: 78

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Share some Oracle Specialist 1Z0-443 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

Question: 37
In an emergency treatment situation, a health care provider:
A. Must obtain the signature of the patient before disclosing PHI to another provider.
B. Must contact a relative of the patient before disclosing PHI to another provider.
C. May use their best judgment in order to provide appropriate treatment.
D. May use PHI but may not disclose it to another provider
E. Must inform the patient about the Notice of Privacy Practices before delivering treatment.
1Z0-443 dumps 
Answer: C

Question: 38
Patient identifiable information may include:
A. Country of birth.
B. Telephone number,
C. Information on past 3 employers.
D. Patient credit reports.
E. Smart card-based digital signatures.
Answer: B

Question: 39
Select the FALSE statement regarding the administrative requirements of the HIPAA privacy rule.
A. A covered entity must mitigate, to the extent practicable, any harmful effect that it becomes
aware of from the use or disclosure of PHI in violation of its policies and procedures or HIPAA
B. A covered must not in any way intimidate, retaliate, or discriminate against any individual or other
entity, which tiles a compliant.
C. A covered entity may not require individuals to waive their rights as a condition for treatments
payment, enrollment in a health plan, or eligibility for benefits,
D. A covered entity must retain the documents required by the regulations for a period of six years
E. A covered entity must change its policies and procedures to comply with HIPAA regulations no
later than three years after the change in law
1Z0-443 exam 
Answer: E

Question: 40
Select the correct statement regarding the requirements for oral communication in the HIPAA
A. Covered entities must reasonably safeguard PHI, including oral communications, from any
intentional or unintentional use or disclosure that is in violation of the Privacy Rule.
B. Covered entities must have in place appropriate administrative, technical, and physical safeguards
to protect the privacy of de-Identified data
C. Covered entities are prohibited from marketing through oral communications.
D. The Privacy Rule requires covered entities to document any information, including oral
communications, which is used or disclosed for TPO purposes.
E. The Privacy Rule will often require major structural changes, such as soundproof rooms and
encryption of telephone systems, to provide the “reasonable safeguards” of oral communications
required by the regulations.
Answer: A

Question: 41
A doctor sends patient records to another company for data entry services. A bonded delivery
service is used for the transfer. The records are returned to the doctor after entry is complete, using
the same delivery service. The entry facility and the network they use are secure. The doctor is
named as his own Privacy Officer in written policies. The doctor has written procedures for this
process and all involved parties are documented as having been trained in them The doctor does not
have written authorizations to disclose Protected Health Information (PHI). Is the doctor in violation
of the Privacy Rule?
A. No – This would be considered an allowed “routine disclosure between the doctor and his
business partner.
B. Yes – There is no exception to the requirement for an authorization prior to disclosure, no matter
how well intentioned or documented.
C. Yes – a delivery service is not considered a covered entity
D. Yes – to be a “routine disclosure” all the parties must have their own Privacy Officer as mandated
by l-IIPAA.
E. Yes – this is not considered a part of “treatment”, which is one of the valid exceptions to the
Privacy Rule.
1Z0-443 pdf Answer: A

Question: 42
Which of the following is example of “Payment” as defined in the HIPAA regulations?
A. Annual Audits
B. Claims Management
C. Salary disbursement to the workforce having direct treatment relationships.
D. Life Insurance underwriting
E. Cash given to the pharmacist for the purchase of an over-the-counter drug medicine
Answer: B

Question: 43
Select the correct statement regarding the responsibilities of providers and payers under HIPAA’s
privacy rule.
A. Optionally, they might develop a mechanism of accounting for all disclosures of PHI for purposes
other than TPO.
B. They must redesign their offices, workspaces, and storage systems to afford maximum protection
to PHI from intentional and unintentional use and disclosure.
C. They must develop methods for disclosing only the minimum amount of protected information
necessary to accomplish any intended purpose.
D. They must obtain a “top secret” security clearance for all member of their workforce.
E. They must identify business associates that need to use PHI to accomplish their function and
develop authorization forms to allow PHI to be shared with these business associates.
1Z0-443 vce Answer: C

Question: 44
The code set that must be used to describe or identify dentists services and procedures is:
A. lcD-9-cM, Volumes 1 and 2
B. CPT-4
D. ICD-9-CM, Volume 3
Answer: C

Question: 45
The Security Rule requires that the covered entity identifies a security official who is responsible for
the development and implementation of the policies and procedures. This is addressed under which
security standard?:
A. Security incident Procedures
B. Response and Reporting
C. Assigned Security Responsibility
D. Termination Procedures
E. Facility Access Controls
1Z0-443 dumps Answer: C

Question: 46
This code set describes drugs:
A. ICD-9-CM, Volumes 1 and 2.
B. CPT-4.
D. ICD-9-CM, Volume 3.
Answer: E

Question: 47
Within the context of a transaction set, the fields that comprise a hierarchical level are referred to as
A. Loop
B. Enumerator.
C. Identifier.
D. Data segment.
E. Code set.
1Z0-443 exam  Answer: A

Question: 48
Health information is protected by the Privacy Rule as long as:
A. The authorization has been revoked by the physician
B. The patient remains a citizen of the United States.
C. The information is under the control of HHS.
D. The information is in the possession of a covered entity.
E. The information is not also available on paper forms.
Answer: D

Question: 49
Which one of the following is a required implementation specification of the Security Management
A. Risk Analysis
B. Access Control and Validation Procedures
C. Integrity Controls
D. Access Authorization
E. Termination Procedures
1Z0-443 pdf Answer: A

Question: 50
A business associate:
A. Requires PKI for the provider and the patient.
B. Is electronically stored information about an individual’s lifetime health status and health care.
C. Is another name for an HMO.
D. Identifies all non-profit organizations.
E. Is a person or an entity that on behalf of the covered entity performs or assists in the performance
of a function or activity involving the use or disclosure of health-related information.
Answer: E

Question: 51
Individually identifiable health information (IIHI) includes information that is:
A. Transmitted to a business associate for payment purposes only.
B. Stored on a smart card only by the patient.
C. Created or received by a credit company that provided a personal loan for surgical procedures.
D. Created or received by a health care clearinghouse for claim processing.
E. Requires the use of biometrics for access to records.
1Z0-443 vce Answer: D

Question: 52
Select the correct statement regarding the administrative requirements of the HIPAA privacy rule
A. A covered entity must apply disciplinary sanctions against members of its workforce who fail to
comply with the privacy policies and procedures of the covered entity.
B. A covered entity need not train all members of its workforce whose functions are materially
affected by a change in policy or procedure
C. A covered entity must designate, and document, a contact person responsible for receiving
acknowledgements of Notice of Privacy Practice.
D. A covered entity may require individuals to waive their rights.
E. A covered entity must provide maximum safeguards for PHI from any intentional or unintentional
use or disclosure that is in violation of the regulations and to limit incidental uses and disclosures
made pursuant to permitted or required use or disclosure.
Answer: A

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[New Updated Questions] High Pass Rate Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Details | CCENT ICND1 v3.0 100-105 Dumps PDF Study Guide On Yumpu

Trust the best-selling Pass4itsure 100-105 dumps series from Cisco Press to help you learn, prepare, and practice for exam success. They are built with the objective of providing assessment, review, and practice to help ensure you are fully prepared for your certification exam.

Exam Code: 100-105
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Updated: Jun 14, 2017
Q&As: 239
Exam Information: https://www.pass4itsure.com/100-105.html

The following are probably the most significant changes to the Pass4itsure 100-105 Dumps

  • Configuring, verifying, and troubleshooting RIPv2 has been added to the ICND1 exam. Why RIP you might ask? Because RIP is a fairly basic and simple routing protocol to configure, Cisco felt it was a good choice to learn basic routing protocol concepts.
  • The OSPF topics where moved to the Pass4itsure 100-105 dumps and curriculum.
  • Device management and maintenance topics where moved from the ICND2 exam and curriculum into the ICND1 exam and curriculum.
  • There is an increased 100-105 exam focus on troubleshooting throughout the exam topics. For example a troubleshooting topic has been added for port security, IPv6 addressing, and client- and router-based DHCP connectivity issues.

The Pass4itsure 100-105 dumps includes topics on the operation of IP data networks, LAN switching technologies, IPv6, IP routing technologies, IP services (DHCP, NAT, ACLs), network device security, and basic troubleshooting. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed.


Share some Cisco Specialist 100-105 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

ROUTER# show ip route is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks
C /28 is directly connected, Loopback1
C /28 is directly connected, Ethernet0
C /28 is directly connected, Loopback0
O /30 via, 00:35:36, Serial0

C /30 is directly connected, Serial0 O /30 via,
00:35:36, Serial0
O /30 via, 00:35:36, Serial0
O /30 via, 00:35:37, Serial0
O /30 via, 00:35:37, Serial0
O via, 00:35:36, Serial 0
To what does the 128 refer to in the router output above?
A. OSPF cost
B. OSPF priority
C. OSPF hop count
D. OSPF ID number
E. OSPF administrative distance
Correct Answer: A
Refer to the exhibit.

A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:
City(config-router)# network area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in
OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this
configuration statement? (Choose three.)
A. FastEthernet0 /0
B. FastEthernet0 /1
C. Serial0/0
D. Serial0/1.102
E. Serial0/1.103
F. Serial0/1.104
Correct Answer: BCD
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. This is a default route.
B. Adding the subnet mask is optional for the ip route command.
C. This will allow any host on the network to reach all known destinations beyond RouterA.
D. This command is incorrect, it needs to specify the interface, such as s0/0/0 rather than an IP address.
E. The same command needs to be entered on RouterA so that hosts on the network can
reach network
Correct Answer: AC
The ip helper-address command does what?
A. assigns an IP address to a host
B. resolves an IP address from a DNS server
C. relays a DHCP request across networks
D. resolves an IP address overlapping issue
100-105 dumps 
Correct Answer: C
Refer to the exhibit.


Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. How can the network administrator solve
this problem?
A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the network.
B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.
C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the
original switch.
D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.
Correct Answer: B
Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the serial interfaces. The output from
the show interfaces command on both routers shows that the serial interface is up, line protocol is down.
Given the partial output for the show running-config in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of this
A. The serial cable is bad.
B. The MTU is incorrectly configured.
C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured.
D. The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
100-105 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
Refer to the exhibit.

Serial 0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet 0/0 LAN.
How can this problem be corrected?
A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.
B. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0.
C. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0
D. Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0
E. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface
Correct Answer: A


Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA?
A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password
C. only connections from the local network will be possible
D. console access to SwitchA requires a password
100-105 vce 
Correct Answer: B
Refer to the exhibit.

A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch
port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?
A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network
function would resume.
Correct Answer: D

A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do
to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

Refer to the exhibit

A user cannot reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department are not having a problem.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. IP routing is not enabled.
B. The default gateway is not in the same subnet.
C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.
D. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC.
E. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.
100-105 exam 
Correct Answer: C

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