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1Z0-443

[New Updated Questions] Best Oracle Taleo 1Z0-443 Dumps Preparation Materials | Valid 1Z0-443 PDF Exam on Vimeo

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Exam Code: 1Z0-443
Exam Name: Oracle Taleo Learn Cloud Service 2016 Implementation Essentials
Updated: Jul 02, 2017
Q&As: 78

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1Z0-443

Share some Oracle Specialist 1Z0-443 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

Question: 37
In an emergency treatment situation, a health care provider:
A. Must obtain the signature of the patient before disclosing PHI to another provider.
B. Must contact a relative of the patient before disclosing PHI to another provider.
C. May use their best judgment in order to provide appropriate treatment.
D. May use PHI but may not disclose it to another provider
E. Must inform the patient about the Notice of Privacy Practices before delivering treatment.
1Z0-443 dumps 
Answer: C


Question: 38
Patient identifiable information may include:
A. Country of birth.
B. Telephone number,
C. Information on past 3 employers.
D. Patient credit reports.
E. Smart card-based digital signatures.
Answer: B


Question: 39
Select the FALSE statement regarding the administrative requirements of the HIPAA privacy rule.
A. A covered entity must mitigate, to the extent practicable, any harmful effect that it becomes
aware of from the use or disclosure of PHI in violation of its policies and procedures or HIPAA
regulations.
B. A covered must not in any way intimidate, retaliate, or discriminate against any individual or other
entity, which tiles a compliant.
C. A covered entity may not require individuals to waive their rights as a condition for treatments
payment, enrollment in a health plan, or eligibility for benefits,
D. A covered entity must retain the documents required by the regulations for a period of six years
E. A covered entity must change its policies and procedures to comply with HIPAA regulations no
later than three years after the change in law
1Z0-443 exam 
Answer: E

Question: 40
Select the correct statement regarding the requirements for oral communication in the HIPAA
regulations.
A. Covered entities must reasonably safeguard PHI, including oral communications, from any
intentional or unintentional use or disclosure that is in violation of the Privacy Rule.
B. Covered entities must have in place appropriate administrative, technical, and physical safeguards
to protect the privacy of de-Identified data
C. Covered entities are prohibited from marketing through oral communications.
D. The Privacy Rule requires covered entities to document any information, including oral
communications, which is used or disclosed for TPO purposes.
E. The Privacy Rule will often require major structural changes, such as soundproof rooms and
encryption of telephone systems, to provide the “reasonable safeguards” of oral communications
required by the regulations.
Answer: A


Question: 41
A doctor sends patient records to another company for data entry services. A bonded delivery
service is used for the transfer. The records are returned to the doctor after entry is complete, using
the same delivery service. The entry facility and the network they use are secure. The doctor is
named as his own Privacy Officer in written policies. The doctor has written procedures for this
process and all involved parties are documented as having been trained in them The doctor does not
have written authorizations to disclose Protected Health Information (PHI). Is the doctor in violation
of the Privacy Rule?
A. No – This would be considered an allowed “routine disclosure between the doctor and his
business partner.
B. Yes – There is no exception to the requirement for an authorization prior to disclosure, no matter
how well intentioned or documented.
C. Yes – a delivery service is not considered a covered entity
D. Yes – to be a “routine disclosure” all the parties must have their own Privacy Officer as mandated
by l-IIPAA.
E. Yes – this is not considered a part of “treatment”, which is one of the valid exceptions to the
Privacy Rule.
1Z0-443 pdf Answer: A

Question: 42
Which of the following is example of “Payment” as defined in the HIPAA regulations?
A. Annual Audits
B. Claims Management
C. Salary disbursement to the workforce having direct treatment relationships.
D. Life Insurance underwriting
E. Cash given to the pharmacist for the purchase of an over-the-counter drug medicine
Answer: B


Question: 43
Select the correct statement regarding the responsibilities of providers and payers under HIPAA’s
privacy rule.
A. Optionally, they might develop a mechanism of accounting for all disclosures of PHI for purposes
other than TPO.
B. They must redesign their offices, workspaces, and storage systems to afford maximum protection
to PHI from intentional and unintentional use and disclosure.
C. They must develop methods for disclosing only the minimum amount of protected information
necessary to accomplish any intended purpose.
D. They must obtain a “top secret” security clearance for all member of their workforce.
E. They must identify business associates that need to use PHI to accomplish their function and
develop authorization forms to allow PHI to be shared with these business associates.
1Z0-443 vce Answer: C


Question: 44
The code set that must be used to describe or identify dentists services and procedures is:
A. lcD-9-cM, Volumes 1 and 2
B. CPT-4
C. CDT
D. ICD-9-CM, Volume 3
E. HCPCS
Answer: C

Question: 45
The Security Rule requires that the covered entity identifies a security official who is responsible for
the development and implementation of the policies and procedures. This is addressed under which
security standard?:
A. Security incident Procedures
B. Response and Reporting
C. Assigned Security Responsibility
D. Termination Procedures
E. Facility Access Controls
1Z0-443 dumps Answer: C


Question: 46
This code set describes drugs:
A. ICD-9-CM, Volumes 1 and 2.
B. CPT-4.
C. CDT
D. ICD-9-CM, Volume 3.
E. NDC.
Answer: E


Question: 47
Within the context of a transaction set, the fields that comprise a hierarchical level are referred to as
a(n):
A. Loop
B. Enumerator.
C. Identifier.
D. Data segment.
E. Code set.
1Z0-443 exam  Answer: A

Question: 48
Health information is protected by the Privacy Rule as long as:
A. The authorization has been revoked by the physician
B. The patient remains a citizen of the United States.
C. The information is under the control of HHS.
D. The information is in the possession of a covered entity.
E. The information is not also available on paper forms.
Answer: D


Question: 49
Which one of the following is a required implementation specification of the Security Management
Process?
A. Risk Analysis
B. Access Control and Validation Procedures
C. Integrity Controls
D. Access Authorization
E. Termination Procedures
1Z0-443 pdf Answer: A


Question: 50
A business associate:
A. Requires PKI for the provider and the patient.
B. Is electronically stored information about an individual’s lifetime health status and health care.
C. Is another name for an HMO.
D. Identifies all non-profit organizations.
E. Is a person or an entity that on behalf of the covered entity performs or assists in the performance
of a function or activity involving the use or disclosure of health-related information.
Answer: E

Question: 51
Individually identifiable health information (IIHI) includes information that is:
A. Transmitted to a business associate for payment purposes only.
B. Stored on a smart card only by the patient.
C. Created or received by a credit company that provided a personal loan for surgical procedures.
D. Created or received by a health care clearinghouse for claim processing.
E. Requires the use of biometrics for access to records.
1Z0-443 vce Answer: D


Question: 52
Select the correct statement regarding the administrative requirements of the HIPAA privacy rule
A. A covered entity must apply disciplinary sanctions against members of its workforce who fail to
comply with the privacy policies and procedures of the covered entity.
B. A covered entity need not train all members of its workforce whose functions are materially
affected by a change in policy or procedure
C. A covered entity must designate, and document, a contact person responsible for receiving
acknowledgements of Notice of Privacy Practice.
D. A covered entity may require individuals to waive their rights.
E. A covered entity must provide maximum safeguards for PHI from any intentional or unintentional
use or disclosure that is in violation of the regulations and to limit incidental uses and disclosures
made pursuant to permitted or required use or disclosure.
Answer: A

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ICND1
100-105

[New Updated Questions] High Pass Rate Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Details | CCENT ICND1 v3.0 100-105 Dumps PDF Study Guide On Yumpu

Trust the best-selling Pass4itsure 100-105 dumps series from Cisco Press to help you learn, prepare, and practice for exam success. They are built with the objective of providing assessment, review, and practice to help ensure you are fully prepared for your certification exam.

Exam Code: 100-105
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Updated: Jun 14, 2017
Q&As: 239
Exam Information: https://www.pass4itsure.com/100-105.html

The following are probably the most significant changes to the Pass4itsure 100-105 Dumps

  • Configuring, verifying, and troubleshooting RIPv2 has been added to the ICND1 exam. Why RIP you might ask? Because RIP is a fairly basic and simple routing protocol to configure, Cisco felt it was a good choice to learn basic routing protocol concepts.
  • The OSPF topics where moved to the Pass4itsure 100-105 dumps and curriculum.
  • Device management and maintenance topics where moved from the ICND2 exam and curriculum into the ICND1 exam and curriculum.
  • There is an increased 100-105 exam focus on troubleshooting throughout the exam topics. For example a troubleshooting topic has been added for port security, IPv6 addressing, and client- and router-based DHCP connectivity issues.

The Pass4itsure 100-105 dumps includes topics on the operation of IP data networks, LAN switching technologies, IPv6, IP routing technologies, IP services (DHCP, NAT, ACLs), network device security, and basic troubleshooting. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed.

100-105

Share some Cisco Specialist 100-105 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 9
ROUTER# show ip route
192.168.12.0/24 is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks
C 192.168.12.64 /28 is directly connected, Loopback1
C 192.168.12.32 /28 is directly connected, Ethernet0
C 192.168.12.48 /28 is directly connected, Loopback0
O 192.168.12.236 /30 via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0

C 192.168.12.232 /30 is directly connected, Serial0 O 192.168.12.245 /30 via 192.168.12.233,
00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240 /30 via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.253 /30 via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.249 /30 via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240/30 via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial 0
To what does the 128 refer to in the router output above?
A. OSPF cost
B. OSPF priority
C. OSPF hop count
D. OSPF ID number
E. OSPF administrative distance
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105

A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:
City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in
OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this
configuration statement? (Choose three.)
A. FastEthernet0 /0
B. FastEthernet0 /1
C. Serial0/0
D. Serial0/1.102
E. Serial0/1.103
F. Serial0/1.104
100-105 
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105

Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. This is a default route.
B. Adding the subnet mask is optional for the ip route command.
C. This will allow any host on the 172.16.1.0 network to reach all known destinations beyond RouterA.
D. This command is incorrect, it needs to specify the interface, such as s0/0/0 rather than an IP address.
E. The same command needs to be entered on RouterA so that hosts on the 172.16.1.0 network can
reach network 10.0.0.0.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12
The ip helper-address command does what?
A. assigns an IP address to a host
B. resolves an IP address from a DNS server
C. relays a DHCP request across networks
D. resolves an IP address overlapping issue
100-105 dumps 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

100-105

Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. How can the network administrator solve
this problem?
A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network.
B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.
C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the
original switch.
D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105

A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the serial interfaces. The output from
the show interfaces command on both routers shows that the serial interface is up, line protocol is down.
Given the partial output for the show running-config in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of this
problem?
A. The serial cable is bad.
B. The MTU is incorrectly configured.
C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured.
D. The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
100-105 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105

Serial 0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet 0/0 LAN.
How can this problem be corrected?
A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.
B. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0.
C. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0
D. Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0
E. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
100-105

100-105

Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA?
A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password
C. only connections from the local network will be possible
D. console access to SwitchA requires a password
100-105 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105

A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch
port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?
A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network
function would resume.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do
to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit
100-105

A user cannot reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department are not having a problem.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. IP routing is not enabled.
B. The default gateway is not in the same subnet.
C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.
D. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC.
E. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.
100-105 exam 
Correct Answer: C

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Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the “Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1” (ICND1) v2.0 course. This https://www.pass4itsure.com/100-105.html 100-105 dumps tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small branch office network.