Index

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Exam Code: 1Y0-253
Exam Name: Implementing Citrix NetScaler 10.5 for App and Desktop Solutions
Q&As: 186

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QUESTION 1
A Citrix Administrator needs to configure a single virtual server to accept TCP traffic on ports 80, 443 and
ports between 10000 and 19999.
Which protocol type should the administrator use to accomplish this task?
A. ANY
B. UDP
C. SSL_TCP
D. SSL_PUSH
1Y0-253 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which two pieces of information are required to create a virtual server? (Choose two.)
A. Port
B. Protocol
C. Subnet Mask
D. Gateway Address
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
Which two items are needed to import an SSL certificate? (Choose two.)
A. A public key
B. A private key
C. A root certificate
D. A server certificate
E. An intermediate certificate
1Y0-253 dumps Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4
Scenario: A company requires two-factor authentication using RSA tokens and Active Directory. The Citrix
Administrator configured the following two authentication policies with these parameters:
The policy named RSA_policy is used for RSA token authentication
The policy named AD_policy is used for Active Directory authentication
What should the administrator do to protect the NetScaler Gateway virtual server from an attack against
Active Directory?
A. Bind the RSA_policy in Primary Authentication Policies and bind the AD_policy in Secondary
Authentication Policies.
B. Bind the AD_policy in Primary Authentication Policies and bind the RSA_policy in Secondary
Authentication Policies.
C. Bind the AD_policy and the RSA_policy in Primary Authentication Policies and set the RSA_policy
priority higher than the AD_policy.
D. Bind the AD_policy and the RSA_policy in Primary Authentication Policies and set the AD_policy
priority higher than the RSA_policy.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Various users report that while accessing the Citrix NetScaler Gateway virtual server they get an error
message that the public SSL certificate is NOT trusted  Which three steps should a Citrix Administrator take on the NetScaler to resolve this issue? (Choose three.)
A. Import the root certificate.
B. Import the intermediate certificate.
C. Download the root certificate from the vendor.
D. Link the root certificate to the intermediate certificate.
E. Download the intermediate certificate from the vendor.
F. Link the intermediate certificate to the existing server certificate.
1Y0-253 pdf Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 6
A Citrix Administrator needs to configure NetScaler Gateway to communicate with the StoreFront providing
resources hosted on XenApp and XenDesktop.
Which IP address does the NetScaler use to route user connections to the StoreFront?
A. Subnet IP (SNIP)
B. NetScaler IP (NSIP)
C. User Source IP (USIP)
D. Client IP (CIP)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is implementing a NetScaler appliance for the first time. All clients will
connect from a public network and all servers will reside on a private network.
Which deployment mode should the administrator use to implement the NetScaler?
A. Layer 2 (L2) mode
B. Layer 3 (L3) mode
C. Two-arm deployment mode
D. MAC-based forwarding mode
1Y0-253 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which two IP addresses are required for a new NetScaler Gateway installation when using the First-Time
Setup Wizard? (Choose two.)
A. Client IP (CIP)
B. Virtual IP (VIP)
C. Subnet IP (SNIP)
D. NetScaler IP (NSIP)
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
Which IP address must be unique on each node in a high availability configuration?
A. Virtual IP (VIP)
B. Mapped IP (MIP)
C. Subnet IP (SNIP)
D. NetScaler IP (NSIP)
1Y0-253 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which component is required to allow users to launch Worx Home through a NetScaler Gateway?
A. App Controller
B. Citrix Receiver
C. Citrix StoreFront
D. NetScaler Gateway Plug-in
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Scenario: A company is considering using NetScaler appliances to load balance existing secured web
servers. The 1Y0-253 dumps company compliance policy does NOT allow any alterations of the SSL sessions between
clients and web servers.
Which option should a Citrix Administrator configure on the NetScaler virtual server to meet the needs of
the company?
A. SSL VPN
B. SSL Bridge
C. SSL Offload
D. SSL Renegotiation
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which two steps must a Citrix Administrator take to allow additional users to access resources using the
NetScaler Gateway Plug-in after the administrator installs the universal license on the NetScaler Gateway?
(Choose two.)
A. Set ICA Proxy to OFF.
B. Configure Citrix Receiver Home Page.
C. Change the authentication AAA settings.
D. Set Single Sign-on with Windows to OFF.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 13
Which two parameters are required for adding a new node to a cluster? (Choose two.)
A. Cluster IP of the new cluster node
B. NetScaler IP of the new cluster node
C. NetScaler IP of the existing cluster node
D. Remote NetScaler user name and password
E. Backplane interface of the existing cluster node
1Y0-253 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 14
Scenario: Users report that they are being presented with a certificate error when they attempt to access
the remote access website of the company. No changes were made to the NetScaler certificates recently.
What should the Citrix Administrator check on the NetScaler to identify this issue?
A. Cert Links
B. OCSP Binding
C. Certificate Format
D. Certificate Expiry Date
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION NO 14. For a default TeamSite installation on Windows to virtualize properly, which one of the following
statements about local groups is true?
A. Local groups must be created for each TeamSite role and user accounts added to the local group
accounts.
B. A local TeamSite group account must be manually created after installation.
C. Local groups must be created for grouptasks in TeamSite workflow.
D. Local groups must be created according to the configuration in submit.cfg.
E. No action needs to be taken concerning local groups.
300-135 exam Answer: E
17. In a default installation, which one of the following tasks is a TeamSite user with the “Editor” role
UNABLE to perform?
A. Create a workarea.
B. Create an edition.
C. Merge two conflicting files.
D. Submit files to the Staging area.
E. Remove a job.
Answer:A
QUESTION NO 15. The customer wants two types of product descriptions. One is for public external view and includes
basic product information. The other is for private internal use and contains sales pricing guidelines and
strategies. The customer is very concerned that the public data be exactly the same on both types of
documents and also wants them to look as much alike as possible. Based on the above scenario, which
one of the following is the right approach?
A. Use one data capture template that gathers all the information and two presentation templates–one for
external and one for internal page generation.
B. Use a personalization server to format the document on the fly when the user logs in.
C. Use one data capture template and one presentation template that includes a component template that
only displays the private information to internal users based on their user IDs.
D. Use two data capture templates–one for external and one for internal page generation and a single
presentation template.
E. Use two completely different template data types–one for external and one for internal page generation,
each with its own data capture template and presentation template.
300-135 dumps Answer:A
QUESTION NO 17. Your customer puts most of its content in a directory called htdocs and all of its links are relative to
that directory. The customer also puts some commonly used images in a directory called “common/”,
which is at the same level as “htdocs/”, not under it. The customer sets up a virtual directory to support
this on its production Web server and wants to support this in a virtualized workarea. What proxy
configuration do you need in order to support the above scenario?
A. _docroot=htdocs /common=/common
B. _docroot=htdocs /common=/htdocs/common
C. docroot=htdocs /common=/common
D. docroot=/ /htdocs=/htdocs /common=/common
E. _docroot=/ /htdocs=/htdocs /common=/common
Answer:A
QUESTION NO 18. Why does a proper content management solution take into account employees at all levels in the
client company, including content contributors, content administrators, production managers, and
executives?
A. It is recommended practice to implement content management with minimal executive involvement.
This is the most pragmatic path to satisfying the majority of the employees.
B. Since all the employees want to continue to use the best possible tools, a content management
solution that uses an open architecture satisfies all the employees.
C. It is recommended practice to implement content management with little or no change to existing
processes. The resulting solution satisfies all the employees.
D. A proper content management solution balances the needs of all the employees in the company.
E. An optimal content management solution can be implemented by the content administrators working
together with the production managers to build a prototype.
300-135 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 19
Which traits should a Help Desk manager look for an analyst to determine if the analyst can
effectively multitask?
A. handles stress andprioritize
B. takes the initiative and is creative
C. takes chances and switches topics
D. changes perspectives often and is self sufficient
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 20
How can you pursue continuous learning to stay current with industry standards? (Choose two)
A. create an individual development plan
B. conduct monthly performance reviews
C. volunteer for projects that require you toleam new information
D. communicate a need for change by providing a compelling business rationale
300-135 vce Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 21
External outsourcing by a third party is the preferred method of support in which situation?
A. Your support organization supports a number of proprietary applications and has significant
security restrictions.
B. Your support organization is going through a rollout of new desktops and you anticipate that
you may need to increase your staff from 20 to 25 for a three-month period.
C. Your support organization would like to transfer support responsibility to an outside
organization. Management requires that all support be performed on the premises.
D. Your support organization supports a large number of remote desktops using standard office
software that requires 24-hour service information Technology priorities do not allow management
time to focus on support issues.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 22
If individual performance problems continue for an extended time, the Help Desk manager may
need to resort to positive discipline. Positive discipline places responsibility for appropriate
performance on the
A. manager
B. employee
C. employee’s colleagues
D. Human Resources Director
300-135 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 23
What are three common problems when supporting global customers? (Choose three)
A. Problems are not communicated clearly.
B. Global network downtime occurs frequently.
C. Service expectations vary from country to country.
D. Different technologies are found in different countries.
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 24
How can you motivate others to seek guidance?
A. emphasize changing behaviors rather than people
B. provide incentives that are challenging yet attainable
C. use personal visits as an opportunity for employee feedback, support, and mentoring
D. Evaluate performance of team members and provide support to facilitate optimum performance
300-135 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 25
To which three types of data do companies restrict access? (Choose three)
A. network shares
B. personnel records
C. payroll information
D. proprietary information
Answer: B,C,D

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Exam Code: 70-417
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 427

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QUESTION 5
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

VM2 sends and receives large amounts of data over the network.
You need to ensure that the network traffic of VM2 bypasses the virtual switches of the parent partition.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
70-417 exam Correct Answer: K
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Single-root I/O virtualization -capable network adapters can be assigned directly to a virtual machine to maximize network throughput while minimizing network latency and the CPU overhead required for processing network traffic.
References:
Exam Ref 70-410, Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure virtual machine settings, p. 144 Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter 7: Hyper-V Virtualization, Lesson 2: Deploying and configuring virtual machines, p. 335
QUESTION 6
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1.
You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The imagex.exe command
B. The ocsetup.exe command
C. The setup.exe command
D. The dism.exe command
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The DISM command is called by the Add-WindowsFeature command. Here is the systax for DISM:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:Server- Gui- Shell /
featurename:Server-Gui-Mgmt

QUESTION 7
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You plan to create an image of Server1.
You need to remove the source files for all server roles that are not installed on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. dism.exe
B. servermanagercmd.exe
C. ocsetup.exe
D. imagex.exe
70-417 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Dism utility can be used to create and mount an image of Server1.
References:
Exam Ref 70-410: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter 1: Installing and Configuring
Servers, p. 19-22
QUESTION 8
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has following storage
spaces:
Data
Users
Backups
Primordial
You add an additional hard disk to Server1.
You need to identify which storage space contains the new hard disk.
Which storage space contains the new disk?
A. Primordial
B. Data
C. Backups
D. Users
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
New Disks (Unallocated space) added to Primordial space.
References:
QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012.
You create a group Managed Service Account named gservice1.
You need to configure a service named Service1 to run as the gservice1 account.
How should you configure Service1?
A. From a command prompt, run ss.exe and specify the config parameter.
B. From a command prompt, run ss.exe and specify the sdset parameter.
C. From the Services console, configure the General settings.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run Set-Service and specify the -PassThrough parameter.
70-417 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Services are often run with default settings — for example, a service might be disabled automatically at
startup. You can use the Services snap-in to change the default settings for a service.
* To configure how a service is started using the Windows interface
1. ClickStart , click in theStart Search box, typeservices.msc , and then press ENTER.
2. Optionally, export and save a list of the existing settings. To do this, right-clickServices , selectExport
List , and save the settings list.
3. In the details pane, right-click the service that you want to configure, and then clickProperties .
4. On theGeneral tab, inStartup type , clickAutomatic ,Manual ,Disabled , orAutomatic (Delayed Start) .
5. To specify the user account that the service can use to log on, click theLog On tab, and then do one of
the following:

QUESTION: 10
Marion has been hired by a small business to determine why its Web site does
not attract users. As Marion interviews different members of the company, she
learns that when the site was first created, the external Web developer did
not produce any documents specifying the basic requirements for the site.
As a result, the site did not have a defined purpose and was not designed for the
company’s audience. Additionally, the site navigation did not make sense from
a user’s point of view. Marion considers this information, then she recommends
that the company create which document?
A. Wireframe
B. Storyboard
C. Marketing slideshow
D. Non-disclosure agreement
Answer: B
QUESTION: 11
Andrea works as an Administrative Assistant for a small business that uses an
SaaS service for accounting, sales orders and customer service information
about the business’s customers. This product is similar to Salesforce.com and
its competitors. Andrea makes sure she saves accurate records about current
projects and performs regular backups of the business data stored on the cloud
based service. Which of the following is the primary reason for this practice?
A. If there is an interruption in Internet access, the service and records would
not be accessible.
B. There is a limit on the number of users who are allowed to access the cloud
based service at any one time.
C. Data stored online through the cloud-based service is more at risk to security
breaches than if it were stored locally.
D. Andrea is overly cautious because it is well known that cloud-based services
are highly secure, highly reliable and always available.
70-417 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 12
You just started a small business and need to create a logo. Although you are
technically savvy, your artistic creativity is limited. You decide to launch a
contest to seek creative ideas for your logo. Using the Internet and social
networking in this manner is known as:
A. folksonomy
B. outsourcing
C. crowd sourcing
D. social engineering
Answer: C
QUESTION: 13
Which term describes a compact personal computer that relies on a touch
screen for in put, generally uses a solid-state drive instead of a traditional hard
disk, and relies on wireless or mobile networks for connectivity?
A. Tablet B.
Laptop C.
Netbook
D. Portable media player
70-417 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 14
Sam is a professor at a small college. Due to a scheduling conflict, he was
unable to obtain access to the computer lab to give the final exam. As an
alternative, he asked students to bring their own devices (BYOD) and connect
to the college’s Wi-Fi for network access. What security risk is
associated with this implementation?
A. Inability for students to share files
B. Inability for students to back up user files
C. Student devices sending unsecured data
D. Student devices being more susceptible to malware
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 70-764
Exam Name: Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION 9
A SOAP-based Web service is essentially: Select the correct answer.
A. solution logic that can only be accessed via HTTP methods
B. solution logic accessible via binary RPC protocols
C. solution logic that has been shaped by service-orientation design principles
D. solution logic that can be accessed via a published WSDL definition
70-764 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements is false? Select the correct answer.
A. The WS-I is an industry standards organization that provides basic profiles to help foster
interoperability among solutions based on XML and Web services industry standards.
B. OASIS is an industry standards organization that has developed a number of important technology
specifications, including WS-BPEL and UDDI.
C. The W3C is a standards organization that has developed a number of important technology
specifications, including SOAP, WSDL, and WS-Addressing.
D. The OAS-C is an industry standards organization that has developed a number of important technology
specifications, including WS-Security and XML Schema.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements is true? Select the correct answer.
A. When using WS-AtomicTransaction, services participating in a transaction vote on the outcome so as
to communicate whether the transaction should be rolled back or committed.
B. When using WS-AtomicTransaction, services participating in a transaction use RPC protocols to
communicate transaction results, so as to communicate whether the transaction should be rolled back
or committed.
C. When using WS-AtomicTransaction, services participating in a transaction rely on the use of WS
Policy definitions to confirm the transaction results.
D. When using WS-AtomicTransaction, services do not actually participate in a transaction. This
specification governs intra-service transactions (transactions that occur within a service boundary)
only. WS-BusinessActivity provides cross-service transaction protocols.
70-764 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which of the following XML documents can be part of a SOAP-based Web service contract? SELECT ALL
THAT APPLY
A. WSDL definition
B. HTTP definition
C. XML schema
D. WS-Policy definition
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 13
Which of the following statements does not make sense? Select the correct answer.
A. I built 3 SOAP-based Web services, each of which has its own published WSDL definition. 2 of the
WSDL definitions share the same XML schema.
B. I built 3 XML schemas, two of which are being shared by the same WSDL definition.
C. I built 3 WSDL definitions and 3 XML schemas. Each WSDL definition is associated with its own XML
schema.
D. All of the above statements make sense.
70-764 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which of the following technologies can be used to enable the exchange of data between services? Select
the correct answer.
A. SOAP
B. HTTP
C. WSDL
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements is true? Select the correct answer.
A. REST services primarily rely on the use of SOAP headers to exchange message metadata.
B. REST services primarily rely on the use of JMS headers to exchange message metadata.
C. REST services primarily rely on the use of HTTP headers to exchange message metadata.
D. REST services do not exchange messages with headers.
70-764 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which of the following statements is true? Select the correct answer.
A. WS-ReliableMessaging establishes a framework that provides an industry-standard means of
transforming XML schema-based data models.
B. WS-ReliableMessaging establishes a framework that provides an industry-standard means of rolling
back changes that occur during a runtime service transaction.
C. WS-ReliableMessaging establishes a framework that provides an industry-standard means of reliably
communicating policy enforcement rules.
D. None of these statements are true.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Using WS-AtomicTransaction you wrap 3 SOAP-based Web services in a single transaction. When it is
time to vote on the outcome of the transaction, 2 of the services vote to commit the changes made during
the transaction, but a vote from the third service is not received. What will happen? Select the correct
answer.
A. The changes are committed because the transaction is considered successful as long as no Abort
votes are received.
B. The changes are rolled back because the transaction is considered unsuccessful when there is a
missing vote.
C. The changes are committed because the transaction is considered successful as long as one Commit
vote is received.
D. The changes are aborted because a transaction can only be considered successful when more than 2
Commit votes are received.
70-764 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
XSLT is a technology that is primarily used to address _____________________ . Select the correct
answer.
A. technology protocol bridging requirements (such as when .NET and Java components need to speak to
each other)
B. data model transformation requirements (such as when similar data based on different XML schemas
needs to be exchanged)
C. layer transformation requirements (such as when data located in different architectural layers needs to
be exchanged between architectural layers)
D. service transformation requirements (such as when two versions of the same service exist)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
WS-BPEL process definitions can be encapsulated by and exposed as SOAP-based Web services.
Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
70-764 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which of the following statements makes sense? Select the correct answer.
A. I have 3 REST services, 2 of which do not support the PUT method.
B. I have 3 REST services, 2 of which have a PUT operation in the SOAP header schemas of their WSDL
definitions.
C. I have 3 REST services, 2 of which do not support HTTP.
D. None of these statements make sense.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Messages transmitted using WS-ReliableMessaging are typically __________________ into
__________________. Select the correct answer.
A. decomposed, HTTP methods
B. parsed, WS-Policy definitions
C. grouped, sequences
D. converted, comma-separated-value (CSV) files
70-764 pdf Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 200-310
Exam Name: Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions
Updated: Sep 03, 2017
Q&As: 453

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Share some Cisco Specialist 200-310 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 1
What information should be utilized to identify network applications that are running on an existing network infrastructure?
A. customer information
B. existing documentation
C. traffic analysis
D. external feedback
E. user feedback
200-310 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
What are two benefits of a structured IPv4 addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
A. reduces routing table size
B. provides increased security
C. allows for address translation to be performed
D. improves manageability and troubleshooting
E. increases high availability
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 3
Which IP address can be routed to cross the public Internet 200-310 dumps?
A. 10.31.1.1
B. 192.168.32.1
C. 172.32.1.1
D. 169.254.32.1
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices. What routing configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a
private line failure?
A. floating static entry
B. EIGRP variance
C. bandwidth metric
D. OSPF maximum paths
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which data center characteristic ensures that adequate resources are provided to efficiently store and
process data?
A. Capacity
B. Availability
C. Scalability
D. Performance
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which data center management process involves collating and presenting the utilization of resources?
A. Reporting
B. Provisioning
C. Planning
D. Maintenance
200-310 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which type of digital data has no defined format but has a self-describing structure that enables its
analysis?
A. Semi-structured data
B. Structured data
C. Metadata
D. Quasi-structured data
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which type of digital data consists of textual data with inconsistent formats but can be formatted with the
use of software tools?
A. Quasi-structured data
B. Semi-structured data
C. Metadata
D. Unstructured data
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
What is an accurate statement about a hybrid cloud?
A. Supports data and application portability for load balancing between clouds
B. Allows organizations with common concerns to share the cost of deploying the cloud
C. Enables the entire cloud infrastructure to be controlled by the consumer’s IT staff
D. Allows an organization to outsource the implementation of a private cloud to a cloud provider
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What is an accurate statement about Software as a Service?
A. Consumer has limited control over user-specific application configuration settings
B. Consumer has control over the operating systems and deployed applications
C. Consumer has control over the configuration settings of the application-hosting environment
D. Consumer has limited control over select networking components, such as host firewalls
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which cloud service does VMware vCloud Air provide?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Database as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
A start-up company with a limited budget is planning to adopt a hybrid cloud solution for their operations.
The company has business-critical applications that serve customers and have strict service levels. In
addition, the company has less critical applications such as backup and archive.
Which hybrid cloud strategy should be recommended to the company?
A. Deploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud.
Deploy the less critical applications on a public cloud.
B. Deploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud.
Deploy the less critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud.
C. Deploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud.
Deploy the less critical applications on a public cloud.
D. Deploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud.
Deploy the less critical applications on an on-premise private cloud.
200-310 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which benefit does the measured service characteristic provide to a cloud service provider?
A. Enables control and optimization of resource use
B. Enables cloud services to communicate with each other
C. Enables availability of specific resources depending on policy
D. Enables the reduction and/or elimination of upfront IT expenditure
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which cloud computing characteristic enables multi-tenancy and abstracts the location of provided
resources?
A. Resource pooling
B. Measured service
C. Rapid elasticity
D. Broad network access
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
What is an accurate statement about Infrastructure as a Service?
A. Consumer has control over the operating systems and the deployed applications
B. Consumer only has control over user-specific application configuration settings
C. Consumer has control over network devices, compute systems, and storage systems
D. Consumer only has control over the configuration settings of the application-hosting environment
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
What is an accurate statement about Platform as a Service?
A. Consumer has control over the deployed applications
B. Consumer has control over the operating system and database management system
C. Consumer has control over the programming languages and tools
D. Consumer has control over the operating system and storage
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which capability does big data analytics provide?
A. Enabling data-driven decisions from large volumes of data
B. Storing large volumes of data without affecting availability
C. Reducing the data storage capacity requirement
D. Performing analytics using traditional tools
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
What is signified by the “variability” characteristic of big data?
A. Meaning of the data changes constantly
B. Data is generated in different formats by numerous sources
C. Data change rate affects its timely analysis
D. Varying data quality affects its reliability and accuracy
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
What is signified by the “variety” characteristic of big data?
A. Data is generated in different formats by numerous sources
B. Meaning of the data changes constantly
C. Varying data quality affects its reliability and accuracy
D. Data change rate affects its timely analysis
200-310 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
What does the transformation of an operating model for third platform adoption involve?
A. Provisioning IT resources through a self-service portal
B. Establishing new roles and responsibilities to manage IT services
C. Adopting virtualization technologies to enable automation
D. Building new technical and business skills in the IT staff
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
What is an accurate statement about a data lake?
A. Stores data as an exact or near-exact copy of the source format
B. Supports query and analysis by classifying and organizing data before storing
C. Stores current and historical data in a structured format on object-based storage
D. Provides a single consistent view of data across an organization for report generation
200-310 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Which capability is provided by a software-defined storage controller?
A. Ability to pool and abstract physical storage and present it as an open storage platform
B. Ability for multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical compute system
C. Mechanisms to automatically create application programming interfaces for centralized management
D. Single self-contained package with integrated hardware and software components
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
What is a benefit of using converged infrastructure for building a data center?
A. Reduces the time to acquire and deploy the infrastructure
B. Provides the flexibility to purchase individual IT components
C. Integrates existing IT components into the infrastructure
D. Offers the flexibility to change vendors and prevent vendor lock-in
200-310 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
What is a function of the orchestration layer in a data center infrastructure?
A. Provides workflows for automated execution of management tasks
B. Aggregates physical infrastructure components into resource pools
C. Measures the consumption of IT resources by various services
D. Decouples an operating environment from the underlying hardware
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-346
Exam Name: Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements
Updated: Aug 25, 2017
Q&As: 211

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Share some Microsoft Specialist 70-346 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 11
An organization migrates to Office 365.
The Office 365 administrator must be notified when Office 365 maintenance activities are planned.
You need to configure the administrator’s computer to receive the notifications.
What should you configure?
A. Office 365 Management Pack for System Center Operations Manager
B. Service requests
C. Service health page
D. Office 365 Service Health RSS Notifications feed
70-346 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. You create a new retention policy that contains several
retention tags. A user named Test5 has a client computer that runs Microsoft Office Outlook 2007. You
install Microsoft Outlook 2010 on the client computer of Test5. Test5 reports that the new retention tags
are unavailable from Outlook 2010.
You verify that other users can use the new retention tags. You need to ensure that the new retention tags
are available to Test5 from Outlook 2010.
What should you do?
A. Instruct Test5 to repair the Outlook profile.
B. Modify the retention policy tags.
C. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
D. Force directory synchronization.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Your company purchases an 70-346 dumps Office 365 plan. The company has an Active Directory Domain Services
domain.
User1 must manage Office 365 delegation for the company.
You need to ensure that User1 can assign administrative roles to other users.
What should you do?
A. Use a password administrator account to assign the role to User1.
B. Use a user management administrator account to assign the role to User1.
C. Create an Office 365 tenant and assign User1 the global administrator role.
D. Create an Office 365 tenant and assign User1 the password administrator role.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Your company has 100 user mailboxes. The company purchases a subscription to Office 365 for
professionals and small businesses. You need to enable the Litigation Hold feature for each mailbox.
What should you do first?
A. Create a service request.
B. Modify the default retention policy.
C. Enable audit logging for all of the mailboxes.
D. Purchase a subscription to Office 365 for midsize business and enterprises.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012.
You plan to install an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) proxy server.
You need to install and configure all of the required roles.
Which two roles should you install and configure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. AD FS
B. Web Server (IIS)
C. Remote Access
D. Application Server
E. Network Policy and Access Service
F. Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS)
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 16
A company deploys an Office 365 tenant.
You need to enable multi-factor authentication for Office 365.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the
list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 17
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
User1 leaves the company. You must delete the account for User1.
In the table below, identify when each type of data will be deleted. Make only one selection in each
column. Each correct selection is worth one point.

70-346 vce Correct Answer:

QUESTION 18
The legal department in your organization creates standardized disclaimers for all of their email messages.
The disclaimers explain that any transmissions that are received in error should be reported back to the
sender. You track any confidential documents that are attached to email messages.
Your security team reports that an employee may have mistakenly sent an email message that contained
confidential information.
You need to identify whether the email message included the disclaimer and whether it contained
confidential information.
Which two options should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate objects in the answer area.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 19
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
Users report that their passwords expire too frequently, and they do not receive adequate notice of
password expiration.
Account passwords must remain active for the longest duration allowed. Users must receive password
expiration notifications as early as possible.
You need to configure the password expiration policy.
How should you set the policy on the password page of the Office 365 admin center? To answer, drag the
appropriate duration to the correct location. Each duration may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

70-346 exam Correct Answer:

QUESTION 20
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You audit the Windows Azure Active Directory
Rights Management configuration for the company. You need to view a log of the recent administrative
commands performed against the Microsoft Rights Management Service.
Which three Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
cmdlets from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 21
Fabrikam, Inc. employs 500 users and plans to migrate to Office 365.
You must sign up for a trial plan from the Office 365 70-346 dumps website. You have the following requirements:
Create the maximum number of trial users allowed.
Convert the trial plan to a paid plan at the end of the trial that supports all of Fabrikam’s users.
You need to create an Office 365 trial plan.
How should you configure the trial plan? Select the correct answer from each list in the answer area.
Hot Area:

QUESTION 22
A company deploys an Office 365 tenant. You install the Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
server role on a server that runs Windows Server 2012. You install and configure the Federation Service
Proxy role service. Users sign in by using the Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) protocol.
You need to customize the sign-in pages for Office 365.
Which pages should you customize? To answer, drag the appropriate page to the correct customization.
Each page may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

QUESTION 22
A company deploys an Office 365 tenant. You install the Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
server role on a server that runs Windows Server 2012. You install and configure the Federation Service
Proxy role service. Users sign in by using the Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) protocol.
You need to customize the sign-in pages for Office 365.
Which pages should you customize? To answer, drag the appropriate page to the correct customization.
Each page may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 23
HOTSPOT
A company has an Office 365 tenant.
You plan to use Active Directory Federated Services for user authentication. You create an account named
SyscService in Active Directory and in Office 365. You must configure the permissions for the 70-346  pdf accounts in
both environments by granting the minimum permissions required.
In the table below, identify the role that you must assign to each account/ Note: Make only one selection in
each column. Each correct answer is worth one point.
Hot Area:

QUESTION 24
DRAG DROP
You have an Office 365 tenant. An organization is migrating from an Exchange organization to Office 365.
Users report that Outlook does not display the availability of other users for meetings. You must determine
whether an Office 365 mailbox can access the scheduling availability of a user with an on-premises
mailbox. You must also run a test to verify that an on-premises mailbox can access the scheduling
availability of a user that has an Office 365 mailbox.
You need to conduct the tests.
What should you do? To answer, drag the appropriate test to run to the correct mailbox test scenario. Each
test may be used once, more than once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 25
DRAG DROP
A company has an Office 365 tenant. You plan to use Office 365 to manage the Microsoft 70-346 dumps DNS settings for a custom
domain. You purchase the domain through a third-party provider.
You create a custom website. You must host the website through a third-party provider at the IP address
134.170.185.46. You need to configure the correct DNS settings.
What should you do? To answer, drag the appropriate DNS record to the correct DNS target. Each record
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

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Exam Code: 70-480
Exam Name: Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3
Updated: Aug 26, 2017
Q&As: 205

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Microsoft 70-480 dumps contains 205 questions and covers the following objectives:

• Access and Secure Data
• Implement and manipulate document structures and objects
• Implement program flow
• Use CSS3 in applications

Share some Microsoft Specialist 70-480 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 1
A traditional quality control process in manufacturing consists of mass inspection of goods only at the end of a production process. A major deficiency of the
traditional control process is that:
A. It is expensive to do the inspections at the end of the process.
B. It is not possible to rework defective items.
C. It is not 100% effective.
D. It does not focus on improving the entire production process.
70-480 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The process used to produce the goods is not thoroughly reviewed and evaluated for efficiency and effectiveness. Preventing defects and increasing efficiency by
improving the production process raises quality standards and decreases costs.
QUESTION 2
If a manufacturer has established a limit on the number of defects that are tolerable in the final assembly of its product, which of the following quality control
procedures should be employed?
I.Inspect completed goods for compliance with established tolerances.
II. Review sales returns for defects not detected during the final inspection process.
III. Compare materials and machinery specifications with original product designs.
IV. Establish a quality circle that includes management and subordinates to discuss labor efficiency.
A. I, III, and IV.
B. II and III only.
C. I, II, and III.
D. Ill and IV only.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Inspecting goods after completion of the production process and counting defective goods returned by customers are product quality procedures. They measure
the level of product conformance with customer expectations. Verifying materials and machinery specifications are process quality procedures because they
emphasize the inputs to the process and the process itself.
QUESTION 3
The most important component of quality control is:
A. Ensuring goods and services conform to the design specifications.
B. Satisfying upper management.
C. Conforming with ISO-9000 specifications.
D. Determining the appropriate timing of inspections.
70-480 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The intent of quality control is to ensure that goods and services conform to the design specifications. Whether the focus is on feedforward, feedback, or
concurrent control, the emphasis is on ensuring product or service conformity.
QUESTION 4
Management of a company is attempting to build a reputation as a world-class manufacturer of quality products. Which of the following measures would not be
used by the firm to measure quality?
A. The percentage of shipments returned by customers because of poor quality.
B. The number of parts shipped per day.
C. The number of defective parts per million.
D. The percentage of products passing quality tests the firsttime
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The number of parts shipped per day would most likely be used as a measure of the effectiveness and efficiency of shipping procedures, not the quality of the
product. This measure does not consider how many of the parts are defective.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is not an appropriate measure of quality?
A. Market share.
B. Delivery performance.
C. Customer satisfaction.
D. Raw materials costs.
70-480 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Emphasizing lower input costs may result in more defective output, and higher input costs may or may not reflect the procurement of better raw materials.
Financial measures are thus mostly unsuitable for measuring quality.
QUESTION 6
Which of the following criteria would be most useful to a sales department manager in evaluating the performance of the manager’s customer-service group?
A. The customer is always right.
B. Customer complaints should be processed promptly.
C. Employees should maintain a positive attitude when dealing with customers.
D. All customer inquiries should be answered within 7 days of receipt.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A criterion that requires all customer inquiries to be answered within 7 days of receipt permits accurate measurement of performance. The quantitative and specific
nature of the appraisal using this standard avoids the vagueness, subjectivity, and personal bias that may afflict other forms of personnel evaluations.
QUESTION 7
An example of an internal nonfinancial benchmark is:
A. The labor rate of comparably skilled employees at a major competitor’s plant.
B. The average actual cost per pound of a specific product at the company’s most efficient plant.
C. A US $50,000 limit on the cost of employee training programs at each of the company’s plants.
D. The percentage of customer orders delivered on time at the company’s most efficient plant.
70-480 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Benchmarking is a continuous evaluation of the practices of the best organizations in their class and the adaptation of processes to reflect the best of these
practices. It requires analysis and measurement of key outputs against those of the best organizations. This procedure also involves identifying the underlying key
actions and causes that contribute to the performance difference. The percentage of orders delivered on time at the company’s most efficient plant is an example
of an internal nonfinancial benchmark.

QUESTION 8
You develop a webpage with a standard input control by using HTML5.
The input control must display the text Enter your given name, as shown below:

When a user selects the input control, the text must disappear.
You need to create the input control.
Which input control should you use?
A. <input name=”GivenName” value=” Enter your given name” />
B. <input name =”GivenName” default=” Enter your given name” />
C. <input name=”GivenName” text=” Enter your given name” />
D. <input name=”GivenName” placeholder=” Enter your given name” />
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
You develop an HTML application that is located at www.adventure-works.com. The application must load
JSON data from www.fabrikam.com.
You need to choose an approach for loading the data.
When a user selects the input control, the text must disappear.
You need to create the input control.
Which input control should you use?
A. <input name=”GivenName” value=” Enter your given name” />
B. <input name =”GivenName” default=” Enter your given name” />
C. <input name=”GivenName” text=” Enter your given name” />
D. <input name=”GivenName” placeholder=” Enter your given name” />
70-480 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
You develop an HTML application that is located at www.adventure-works.com. The application must load
JSON data from www.fabrikam.com.
You need to choose an approach for loading the data.

The webpage also contains the following JavaScript function named someEvent() that is declared in the
HEAD section of the HTML:
Function someEvent() {
Alert(‘someEvent fired!’);
}
The JavaScript function named someEvent() must run only when the user clicks the DIV element, not the
INPUT elements.
You need to modify the webpage to invoke the JavaScript function named someEvent().
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
Your company uses a third-party component that generates HTML for a website. The third- party
component creates DIV elements that display a yellow background.
The third-party component uses inline styles in the DIV elements that are inconsistent with your corporate
standards. You must override the DIV elements in the style sheet with the corporate styles.
You need to ensure that the website meets corporate standards.
Which style should you use?

70-480 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
You are creating a rotating image of a company logo.
The logo must spin on a horizontal axis and on a vertical axis.
You need to use the least amount of development effort to meet the requirement.
What should you do?
A. Create an Image Spinner object, load the image into the spinner, and set the horizontal and vertical
rotation properties.
B. Create a Canvas Globe transform and set the image as the globe object. Set the horizontal and vertical
rotation properties.
C. Create a single Canvas 3D transform and load the image into it. Set the rotation properties.
D. Create a Canvas 2D transform and set the image to rotate horizontally and vertically.
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 210-451
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals
Updated: Aug 14, 2017
Q&As: 60

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Share some Cisco Specialist 210-451 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 1
Identify the missing word(s) from the following sentence. A project is a temporary organization that is
created for the purpose of delivering one or more business products according to an agreed?
A. Senior User
B. Business Case
C. Change
D. Cost
210-451 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
According to PRINCE2, which of the following is a characteristic of a project compared to that of business
operations?
A. Incurs cost
B. Introduces business change
C. Delivers benefits
D. Creates products
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is FALSE?
A. Manage risks is a PRINCE2 principle
B. Manage by exception is a PRINCE2 principle
C. Focus on products is a PRINCE2 principle
D. Tailor to suit the project environment is a PRINCE2 principle
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
According to PRINCE2, which of the following are the aspects of project performance to be managed?
A. Processes, themes, principles
B. Time, cost, quality, people
C. Time, cost, quality
D. Time, cost, quality, scope, benefits, risk
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
What environment does PRINCE2 assume?
A. Third party
B. Customer/Supplier
C. Fixed-price contract
D. Management and Specialist
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
A characteristic of a project is that they come with an element of uncertainty. Which of the following
PRINCE2 themes will help with the identification and management of such uncertainty?
A. Quality
B. Risk
C. Change
D. Organization
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which is a benefit of using PRINCE2?
A. Stakeholders are kept out of planning and decision making
B. Participants understand each other’s roles and needs
C. Stakeholders are not involved in assuring the project work
D. All problems are escalated to all stakeholders
210-451 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which PRINCE2 principle supports planning only to a level of detail that is manageable and foreseeable?
A. Continued business justification
B. Manage by exception
C. Focus on products
D. Manage by stages
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which is NOT a PRINCE2 integrated element?
A. The principles
B. The techniques
C. The themes
D. Tailoring PRINCE2 to the project environment
210-451 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which is a characteristic of a project?
A. Are risk free
B. Have no uncertainty
C. Are managed as part of business as usual
D. Are cross-functional
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which is one of the six aspects of project performance that needs to be managed?
A. Issues
B. People
C. Benefit
D. Tolerance
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Identify the missing words in the following sentence… A principle of PRINCE2 is that a project has defined
and agreed?
A. Roles and responsibilities
B. Specialist teams with appropriate technical skills
C. Management jobs with job descriptions
D. Senior managers at all levels of the project management team
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Identify the missing words in the following sentence… A PRINCE2 project is and controlled on a stage-by
stage basis?
A. Planned, monitored
B. Developed, reported
C. Designed, assigned
D. Planned, produced
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Identify the missing word in the following sentence… A PRINCE2 project has defined for each project
objective to establish limits of delegated authority?
A. Allowances
B. Tolerances
C. Roles
D. Deviations
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Identify the missing word in the following sentence… A PRINCE2 project focuses on the definition and
delivery of, in particular their quality requirements?
A. Benefits
B. Products
C. Activities
D. Outcomes
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which of the following is a TRUE principle of a PRINCE2 project?
A. Please refer to section 2.3 in the PRINCE2 Manual
B. Work Package level activities are identified during Starting up a Project
C. A project has defined and agreed roles and responsibilities
D. Every project will need a different project management approach
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Identify the missing words in the following sentence… A Project is a that is created for the purpose of
delivering one or more business products according to an agreed Business Case?
A. Temporary organization
B. Skilled environment
C. One-off Endeavour
D. Unique team of stakeholders
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. PRINCE2’s focus is on engaging with the business stakeholders only
B. PRINCE2 does not seek to engage with any stakeholders outside of the project environment
C. PRINCE2 is based on a customer/supplier environment
D. PRINCE2 assumes the supplier will specify the desired result and probably pay for the project
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which of the following statements is FALSE? PRINCE2 provides projects with . . .
A. The explicit recognition of project responsibilities
B. A thorough but economical structure of reports
C. Regular progress meetings throughout the project
D. Plans designed to meet the needs of the different levels in the management team
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which of the following does PRINCE2 recognize as being project characteristics?
1. Projects are the means by which we introduce business change
2. Projects have a defined start and end
3. No project is unique
4. Projects often cross the normal functional divisions within an organization
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
The PRINCE2 principle ‘continued business justification’ states that a requirement for a project is that…
There is justifiable reason to start the project and justification should remain valid throughout the life of the
project. Which one of the following does PRINCE2 also state for this principle?
A. The Business Case will include details of all project risks
B. A product must deliver tangible, financial benefits
C. Clear ownership of the Business Case is documented
D. The justification is documented and approved
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Which of the following PRINCE2 elements are described as being the aspects of project management that
must be addressed continually and in parallel throughout the project?
A. The Principles
B. The Processes
C. The Themes
D. Tailoring PRINCE2 to the project environment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Which of the following PRINCE2 elements are described as being the guiding obligations and good
practices which determine whether the project is being managed using PRINCE2?
A. The Principles
B. The Processes
C. The Themes
D. Tailoring PRINCE2 to the project environment
210-451 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which of the following are the integrated elements which make up the structure of PRINCE2?
A. Principles, Themes, Processes, Tailoring to the project environment
B. Outputs, Outcomes, Benefits
C. Organization, Plans, Progress, Business Case, Risk, Quality, Change
D. Time, Cost, Quality, Scope, Benefit, Risk
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which of the following are benefits of using PRINCE2?
1. Provides a common vocabulary for all project participants, promoting effective communication
2. Promotes regular progress meetings for senior management
3. Plans are carefully designed to meet the needs of the different levels in the project organization,
improving communication and control
4. Defines a thorough but economic structure of reports
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
210-451 exam Correct Answer: C

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Exam Code: 200-150
Exam Name: DCICN Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
Updated: Aug 11, 2017
Q&As: 91

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Share some Cisco Specialist 200-150 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

Question: 1
During the organization of a union, it’s possible that the union will gain recognition from the
management. The management is then obliged to give the NLRB a list of employees who are eligible
to vote in the unionization election. What is the name of the list of such employees called?
A. Constituent List
B. Union prospectus List
C. Excelsior List
D. Candidate List
200-150 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
The list of employees who are eligible to vote in the union election, is called the Excelsior List. It’s so
called, based on the outcome of the lawsuit Excelsior Underwear, Inc. v. NLRB in 1996.
Answer option D is incorrect. The list is called the Excelsior List, not the candidate list.
Answer option A is incorrect. The list is called the Excelsior List, not the constituent list.
Answer option B is incorrect. The list is called the Excelsior List, not the union prospectus list.
Question: 2
There are four components of the HR Impact Model, which affect how a HR Professional may
operate within a given environment. Which one of the following is NOT a component of the HR
Impact Model?
A. Consultation
B. Client
C. Catalyst
D. Programs and processes
Answer: B
Explanation:
Client is not one of the four components of the HR Impact Model. The four components are catalyst,
consultation, policies and procedures, and programs and processes. Answer options C, A, and D are
incorrect. Catalyst, consultation and programs and processes are the components of the HR Impact
Model.
Question: 3
Holly is a senior worker in her organization and she is a member of the union. Her position will be
eliminated in sixty days and she will be released from the company. Rather than being unemployed,
Holly asks the union to move her to a less senior position and release a junior employee. If the union
agrees to this, what will this term be known as?
A. Bumping
B. Displacement
C. Releasing
D. Re-organization
200-150 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
This is an example of bumping. Bumping is when a senior employee’s position is being eliminated
and she elects to move to a less senior position and force a less senior worker out of employment.
Answer options C, B, and D are incorrect. These are’nt valid terms for this scenario. Bumping is the
correct choice.
Question: 4
As an HR Professional, you must be familiar with the collective bargaining agreements and the
process that rights are given, contracts, and union and management cooperation. Consider an
arbitration process between the management and the union. What term is assigned to the
resolution of the disagreement, by an arbitrator’s interpretation of the language of the contract?
A. Resolution
B. Interpretation
C. Decision
D. Outcome
Answer: C
Explanation:
The technical term of arbitration, based on the interpretation of the language of the contract, is
called a decision. Answer option D is incorrect. Outcome is not the valid term to describe the
interpretation of the language of the contract, which is called a decision.
Answer option A is incorrect. Resolution is not the valid term to describe the interpretation of the
language of the contract, which is called a decision.
Answer option B is incorrect. Interpretation is not the valid term to describe the interpretation of the
language of the contract, which is called a decision.
Question: 5
As an HR Professional you must be familiar with several different lawsuits and their affect on human
resource practices today. What legal case found that a test that has an adverse impact on a
protected class is still lawful as long as the test can be shown to be valid and job related?
A. Washington versus Davis, 1976
B. Griggs versus Duke Power, 1971
C. McDonnell Douglas Corp. versus Green, 1973
D. Albemarle Paper versus Moody, 1975
200-150 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
Washington versus Davis is correct. Two African Americans were denied positions at the Washington
DC police department because of their performance on a job-related test. The US Supreme Court
ruled against the plaintiffs and deemed that the test did not violate the due process clause. Answer
option B is incorrect. The Griggs versus Duke Power lawsuit was heard in the US Supreme Court. This
case, which preceded the Civil Rights Act of 1964, centered on a policy, Duke Power Company had of
segregating employees by race. Answer option C is incorrect. McDonnell Douglas Corp. versus
Green, 1973 centered on a race discrimination case regarding the burdens and nature of proof in
proving a Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Answer option D is incorrect. Albemarle Paper
versus Moody, 1975 dealt with racial discrimination and the responsibilities of organizations to offer
back pay to individuals that were racially discriminated. The racial discrimination may have
prevented certain employees from advancing in the organization.
Question: 6
Your organization has a retirement benefits plan that is covered by ERISA . Under ERISA, which of the
following is your organization required to do for the plan participants?
A. Provide each participant with plan information, specifically about the features and funding of the
plan through a summary plan description at a cost of no more than $7 per participant, per year.
B. Provide each participant with plan information, specifically about the features and funding of the
plan through a summary plan description at no cost.
C. Provide each participant with monthly plan information, specifically about the features and
funding of the plan through a summary plan description at no more than $7 per participant, per
month.
D. Provide each participant with monthly plan information, specifically about the features and
funding of the plan through a summary plan description at no cost.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The plan administrator is required to provide participants, at no cost, with plan information about
the features and funding of the plan.
Answer option A is incorrect. The information must be provided to the participants from the plan
administrator at no cost.
Answer option D is incorrect. Monthly information is not mandated so this choice isn’t the best
answer.
Answer option C is incorrect. Monthly information is not mandated, and the information must be
provided at no cost to the plan participants.
Question: 7
Fran is a HR Professional for her organization and she is interviewing applicants for a warehouse
position. One of the candidates has written on his application that he speaks Spanish. Fran
interviews this candidate in Spanish and interviews all other candidates in English. This is an example
of what?
A. Disparate treatment
B. Disparate impact
C. Accommodation
D. Perpetuating past discrimination
200-150 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
Technically this is an example of disparate treatment. Fran has treated this applicant differently than
the other applicants because the person says he speaks Spanish.
Answer option D is incorrect. There is no evidence of past discrimination in this example to make this
choice correct.
Answer option B is incorrect. The disparate impact happens when a seemingly neutral policy has a
disproportionately negative effect on the protected class.
Answer option C is incorrect. Accommodation is not a valid term for this scenario.
Question: 8
As a Senior HR Professional, you should be familiar with non-monetary rewards that your company
provides for its employees. Which of the following is an example of non-monetary reward?
A. Satisfaction from challenging and exciting assignments
B. Esteem from working with other talented people
C. Cash compensation
D. On-site cafeteria
Answer: D
Explanation:
An on-site cafeteria is an example of a non-monetary reward.
Answer option B is incorrect. Esteem from working with other talented people is an extrinsic reward.
Answer option A is incorrect. An intrinsic reward is an outcome that gives satisfaction to an
individual from challenging and exciting assignments. An intrinsic reward encourages employee’s self
esteem.
Answer option C is incorrect. Cash compensation is a monetary reward for employment.
Question: 9
Your organization will be using the point factor technique in their evaluations of job performance.
You need to communicate what the point factor technique accomplishes as you’re the HR
Professional for your organization. Which one of the following best describes the point factor
technique?
A. Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are
documented.
B. Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are
weighted on importance to the employee.
C. Performance factors are identified by the employee and then performance levels within the
factors are weighted based on importance to the organization.
D. Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are
documented. The different factors and levels are weighted based on importance to the organization.
200-150 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
The point factor technique identifies point of performance based on importance to the organization.
Within each point, levels of performance are created. Both levels and points are then weighted
based on most important to least important, to determine overall performance of each employee.
Answer options C, A, and B are incorrect. These are not valid definitions of the point factor
technique.
Question: 10
What is the FairPay amount that defines, what a person makes, to be considered highly
compensated?
A. $110,000 or more
B. $150,000 or more
C. $100,000 or more
D. $125,000 or more
Answer: C
Explanation:
FairPay determines that a person earning $100,000 or more is considered to be highly compensated.
Answer options A, D, and B are incorrect. The amount is $100,000 or more, not specifically $110,000,
$125,000, or $150,000.

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Exam Code: 70-534
Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
Updated: Aug 05, 2017
Q&As: 143

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Share some Microsoft Specialist 70-534 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 1
You need to design the system that alerts project managers to data changes in the contractor informaton
app.
Which service should you use?
A. Azure Mobile Service
B. Azure Service Bus Message Queueing
C. Azure Queue Messaging
D. Azure Notfcaton Hub
70-534 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
You need to prepare the implementaton of data storage for the contractor informaton app.
What should you?
A. Create a storage account and implement multple data parttons.
B. Create a Cloud Service and a Mobile Service. Implement Entty Group transactons.
C. Create a Cloud Service and a Deployment group. Implement Entty Group transactons.
D. Create a Deployment group and a Mobile Service. Implement multple data parttons.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You need to design a data storage strategy for each applicaton.
In the table below, identfy the strategy that you should use for each applicaton. Make only one selecton in
each column.
Hot Area:

70-534 dumps Correct Answer:

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a soluton for publishing one of the company websites to Azure and confguring it
for remote debugging.
Which two actons should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the soluton.
A. From Visual Studio, atach the debugger to the soluton.
B. Set the applicaton logging level to Verbose and enable logging.
C. Set the Web Server logging level to Informaton and enable logging.
D. Set the Web Server logging level to Verbose and enable logging.
E. From Visual Studio, confgure the site to enable Debugger Ataching and then publish the site.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
The company has two corporate ofces. Customers will access the websites from datacenters around the
world.

You need to architect the global website strategy to meet the business requirements. Use the drop-down
menus to select the answer choice that answers each queston.
Hot Area:

70-534 pdf Correct Answer:

QUESTION 6
You need to confgure the deployment of the storage analysis applicaton.
What should you do?
A. Create a new Mobile Service.
B. Confgure the deployment from source control.
C. Add a new deployment slot.
D. Turn on contnuous integraton.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
You need to design the notfcaton service for the customer-facing mobile app.
Which three actons should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actons from the list
of actons to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

70-534 vce Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8
You are designing an Azure application that will use a worker role. The worker role will create temporary
files.
You need to minimize storage transaction charges.
Where should you create the files?
A. In Azure local storage
B. In Azure Storage page blobs
C. On an Azure Drive
D. In Azure Storage block blobs
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
You are planning an upgrade strategy for an existing Azure application. Multiple instances of the
application run in Azure. The management team is concerned about application downtime due to a
business service level agreement (SLA).
You are evaluating which change in your environment will require downtime. You need to identify the
changes to the environment that will force downtime.
Which change always requires downtime?
A. Adding an HTTPS endpoint to a web role
B. Upgrading the hosted service by deploying a new package
C. Changing the value of a configuration setting
D. Changing the virtual machine size
70-534 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
An application currently resides on an on-premises virtual machine that has 2 CPU cores 4 GB of RAM 20
GB of hard disk space and a 10 megabit/second network connection.
You plan to migrate the application to Azure. You have the following requirements:
You must not make changes to the application.
You must minimize the costs for hosting the application.
You need to recommend the appropriate virtual machine instance type.
Which virtual machine tier should you recommend?
A. Network Optimized (A Series)
B. General Purpose Compute Basic Tier (A Series)
C. General Purpose Compute Standard Tier (A Series)
D. Optimized Compute (D Series)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
You are designing an Azure development environment. Team members learn Azure development
techniques by training in the development environment.
The development environment must auto scale and load balance additional virtual machine (VM)
instances. You need to recommend the most cost-effective compute-instance size that allows team
members to work with Azure in the development environment.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Al standardVM Instance
B. Azure A2 basic VM Instance
C. Azure A3 basic VM Instance
D. Azure A9 standard VM Instance
70-534 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
You are designing an Azure application. The application includes services hosted in different geographic
locations. The service locations may change.
You must minimize the cost of communication between services.
You need to recommend an approach for data transmission between your application and Azure services.
The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Table storage
B. Service Bus
C. Service Management API
D. Azure Queue storage
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
You are running a Linux guest in Azure Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS). You must run a daily
maintenance task. The maintenance task requires native BASH commands.
You need to configure Azure Automation to perform this task.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create an automation account.
B. Create an Orchestrator runbook.
C. Create an asset credential.
D. Run the Invoke-Workflow Azure PowerShell cmdlet.
E. Import the SSH PowerShell Module.
70-534 pdf Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 14
You are designing an Azure web application.
All users must authenticate by using Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) credentials. You need to
recommend an approach to enable single sign-on to the application for domain-authenticated users. Which
two actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use Forms authentication to generate claims.
B. Use the SQL membership provider in the web application.
C. Use Windows Identity Foundation in the web application.
D. Use Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to generate claims.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
HOTSPOT
A company uses Azure for several virtual machine (VM) and website workloads. The company plans to
assign administrative roles to a specific group of users. You have a resource group named GROUP1 and a
virtual machine named VM2.
The users have the following responsibilities:

You need to assign the appropriate level of privileges to each of the administrators by using the principle of
least privilege.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate target objects and permission levels in the answer
area.
Hot Area:

70-534 vce Correct Answer:

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