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Cisco

[New Updated Questions From Google Drive] Cisco Specialist have the New Release CCNA Cloud 210-451 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers – The Best Materials for CCNA Video Series

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Exam Code: 210-451
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals
Updated: Aug 14, 2017
Q&As: 60

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210-451 dumps

Share some Cisco Specialist 210-451 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 1
Identify the missing word(s) from the following sentence. A project is a temporary organization that is
created for the purpose of delivering one or more business products according to an agreed?
A. Senior User
B. Business Case
C. Change
D. Cost
210-451 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
According to PRINCE2, which of the following is a characteristic of a project compared to that of business
operations?
A. Incurs cost
B. Introduces business change
C. Delivers benefits
D. Creates products
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is FALSE?
A. Manage risks is a PRINCE2 principle
B. Manage by exception is a PRINCE2 principle
C. Focus on products is a PRINCE2 principle
D. Tailor to suit the project environment is a PRINCE2 principle
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
According to PRINCE2, which of the following are the aspects of project performance to be managed?
A. Processes, themes, principles
B. Time, cost, quality, people
C. Time, cost, quality
D. Time, cost, quality, scope, benefits, risk
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
What environment does PRINCE2 assume?
A. Third party
B. Customer/Supplier
C. Fixed-price contract
D. Management and Specialist
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
A characteristic of a project is that they come with an element of uncertainty. Which of the following
PRINCE2 themes will help with the identification and management of such uncertainty?

A. Quality
B. Risk
C. Change
D. Organization
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
Which is a benefit of using PRINCE2?
A. Stakeholders are kept out of planning and decision making
B. Participants understand each other’s roles and needs
C. Stakeholders are not involved in assuring the project work
D. All problems are escalated to all stakeholders
210-451 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which PRINCE2 principle supports planning only to a level of detail that is manageable and foreseeable?
A. Continued business justification
B. Manage by exception
C. Focus on products
D. Manage by stages
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which is NOT a PRINCE2 integrated element?
A. The principles
B. The techniques
C. The themes
D. Tailoring PRINCE2 to the project environment
210-451 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which is a characteristic of a project?
A. Are risk free
B. Have no uncertainty
C. Are managed as part of business as usual
D. Are cross-functional
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which is one of the six aspects of project performance that needs to be managed?
A. Issues
B. People
C. Benefit
D. Tolerance
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Identify the missing words in the following sentence… A principle of PRINCE2 is that a project has defined
and agreed?
A. Roles and responsibilities
B. Specialist teams with appropriate technical skills
C. Management jobs with job descriptions
D. Senior managers at all levels of the project management team
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Identify the missing words in the following sentence… A PRINCE2 project is and controlled on a stage-by
stage basis?
A. Planned, monitored
B. Developed, reported
C. Designed, assigned
D. Planned, produced
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Identify the missing word in the following sentence… A PRINCE2 project has defined for each project
objective to establish limits of delegated authority?
A. Allowances
B. Tolerances
C. Roles
D. Deviations
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
Identify the missing word in the following sentence… A PRINCE2 project focuses on the definition and
delivery of, in particular their quality requirements?
A. Benefits
B. Products
C. Activities
D. Outcomes
210-451 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which of the following is a TRUE principle of a PRINCE2 project?
A. Please refer to section 2.3 in the PRINCE2 Manual
B. Work Package level activities are identified during Starting up a Project
C. A project has defined and agreed roles and responsibilities
D. Every project will need a different project management approach
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Identify the missing words in the following sentence… A Project is a that is created for the purpose of
delivering one or more business products according to an agreed Business Case?

A. Temporary organization
B. Skilled environment
C. One-off Endeavour
D. Unique team of stakeholders
210-451 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. PRINCE2’s focus is on engaging with the business stakeholders only
B. PRINCE2 does not seek to engage with any stakeholders outside of the project environment
C. PRINCE2 is based on a customer/supplier environment
D. PRINCE2 assumes the supplier will specify the desired result and probably pay for the project
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Which of the following statements is FALSE? PRINCE2 provides projects with . . .
A. The explicit recognition of project responsibilities
B. A thorough but economical structure of reports
C. Regular progress meetings throughout the project
D. Plans designed to meet the needs of the different levels in the management team
210-451 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which of the following does PRINCE2 recognize as being project characteristics?
1. Projects are the means by which we introduce business change
2. Projects have a defined start and end
3. No project is unique
4. Projects often cross the normal functional divisions within an organization
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
The PRINCE2 principle ‘continued business justification’ states that a requirement for a project is that…
There is justifiable reason to start the project and justification should remain valid throughout the life of the
project. Which one of the following does PRINCE2 also state for this principle?
A. The Business Case will include details of all project risks
B. A product must deliver tangible, financial benefits
C. Clear ownership of the Business Case is documented
D. The justification is documented and approved
210-451 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Which of the following PRINCE2 elements are described as being the aspects of project management that
must be addressed continually and in parallel throughout the project?

A. The Principles
B. The Processes
C. The Themes
D. Tailoring PRINCE2 to the project environment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Which of the following PRINCE2 elements are described as being the guiding obligations and good
practices which determine whether the project is being managed using PRINCE2?
A. The Principles
B. The Processes
C. The Themes
D. Tailoring PRINCE2 to the project environment
210-451 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
Which of the following are the integrated elements which make up the structure of PRINCE2?
A. Principles, Themes, Processes, Tailoring to the project environment
B. Outputs, Outcomes, Benefits
C. Organization, Plans, Progress, Business Case, Risk, Quality, Change
D. Time, Cost, Quality, Scope, Benefit, Risk
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which of the following are benefits of using PRINCE2?
1. Provides a common vocabulary for all project participants, promoting effective communication
2. Promotes regular progress meetings for senior management
3. Plans are carefully designed to meet the needs of the different levels in the project organization,
improving communication and control
4. Defines a thorough but economic structure of reports
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
210-451 exam Correct Answer: C

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Cisco

[New Updated Questions From Google Drive] Introducing Most Important CCNA DCICN 200-150 Dumps Exam Study Questions Are Based On Yumpu

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Exam Code: 200-150
Exam Name: DCICN Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking
Updated: Aug 11, 2017
Q&As: 91

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Share some Cisco Specialist 200-150 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

Question: 1
During the organization of a union, it’s possible that the union will gain recognition from the
management. The management is then obliged to give the NLRB a list of employees who are eligible
to vote in the unionization election. What is the name of the list of such employees called?
A. Constituent List
B. Union prospectus List
C. Excelsior List
D. Candidate List
200-150 exam Answer: C
Explanation:
The list of employees who are eligible to vote in the union election, is called the Excelsior List. It’s so
called, based on the outcome of the lawsuit Excelsior Underwear, Inc. v. NLRB in 1996.
Answer option D is incorrect. The list is called the Excelsior List, not the candidate list.
Answer option A is incorrect. The list is called the Excelsior List, not the constituent list.
Answer option B is incorrect. The list is called the Excelsior List, not the union prospectus list.
Question: 2
There are four components of the HR Impact Model, which affect how a HR Professional may
operate within a given environment. Which one of the following is NOT a component of the HR
Impact Model?
A. Consultation
B. Client
C. Catalyst
D. Programs and processes
Answer: B
Explanation:
Client is not one of the four components of the HR Impact Model. The four components are catalyst,
consultation, policies and procedures, and programs and processes. Answer options C, A, and D are
incorrect. Catalyst, consultation and programs and processes are the components of the HR Impact
Model.

Question: 3
Holly is a senior worker in her organization and she is a member of the union. Her position will be
eliminated in sixty days and she will be released from the company. Rather than being unemployed,
Holly asks the union to move her to a less senior position and release a junior employee. If the union
agrees to this, what will this term be known as?
A. Bumping
B. Displacement
C. Releasing
D. Re-organization
200-150 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
This is an example of bumping. Bumping is when a senior employee’s position is being eliminated
and she elects to move to a less senior position and force a less senior worker out of employment.
Answer options C, B, and D are incorrect. These are’nt valid terms for this scenario. Bumping is the
correct choice.
Question: 4
As an HR Professional, you must be familiar with the collective bargaining agreements and the
process that rights are given, contracts, and union and management cooperation. Consider an
arbitration process between the management and the union. What term is assigned to the
resolution of the disagreement, by an arbitrator’s interpretation of the language of the contract?
A. Resolution
B. Interpretation
C. Decision
D. Outcome
Answer: C
Explanation:
The technical term of arbitration, based on the interpretation of the language of the contract, is
called a decision. Answer option D is incorrect. Outcome is not the valid term to describe the
interpretation of the language of the contract, which is called a decision.
Answer option A is incorrect. Resolution is not the valid term to describe the interpretation of the
language of the contract, which is called a decision.
Answer option B is incorrect. Interpretation is not the valid term to describe the interpretation of the
language of the contract, which is called a decision.

Question: 5
As an HR Professional you must be familiar with several different lawsuits and their affect on human
resource practices today. What legal case found that a test that has an adverse impact on a
protected class is still lawful as long as the test can be shown to be valid and job related?
A. Washington versus Davis, 1976
B. Griggs versus Duke Power, 1971
C. McDonnell Douglas Corp. versus Green, 1973
D. Albemarle Paper versus Moody, 1975
200-150 exam Answer: A
Explanation:
Washington versus Davis is correct. Two African Americans were denied positions at the Washington
DC police department because of their performance on a job-related test. The US Supreme Court
ruled against the plaintiffs and deemed that the test did not violate the due process clause. Answer
option B is incorrect. The Griggs versus Duke Power lawsuit was heard in the US Supreme Court. This
case, which preceded the Civil Rights Act of 1964, centered on a policy, Duke Power Company had of
segregating employees by race. Answer option C is incorrect. McDonnell Douglas Corp. versus
Green, 1973 centered on a race discrimination case regarding the burdens and nature of proof in
proving a Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. Answer option D is incorrect. Albemarle Paper
versus Moody, 1975 dealt with racial discrimination and the responsibilities of organizations to offer
back pay to individuals that were racially discriminated. The racial discrimination may have
prevented certain employees from advancing in the organization.
Question: 6
Your organization has a retirement benefits plan that is covered by ERISA . Under ERISA, which of the
following is your organization required to do for the plan participants?
A. Provide each participant with plan information, specifically about the features and funding of the
plan through a summary plan description at a cost of no more than $7 per participant, per year.
B. Provide each participant with plan information, specifically about the features and funding of the
plan through a summary plan description at no cost.
C. Provide each participant with monthly plan information, specifically about the features and
funding of the plan through a summary plan description at no more than $7 per participant, per
month.
D. Provide each participant with monthly plan information, specifically about the features and
funding of the plan through a summary plan description at no cost.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The plan administrator is required to provide participants, at no cost, with plan information about
the features and funding of the plan.
Answer option A is incorrect. The information must be provided to the participants from the plan
administrator at no cost.
Answer option D is incorrect. Monthly information is not mandated so this choice isn’t the best
answer.
Answer option C is incorrect. Monthly information is not mandated, and the information must be
provided at no cost to the plan participants.
Question: 7
Fran is a HR Professional for her organization and she is interviewing applicants for a warehouse
position. One of the candidates has written on his application that he speaks Spanish. Fran
interviews this candidate in Spanish and interviews all other candidates in English. This is an example
of what?
A. Disparate treatment
B. Disparate impact
C. Accommodation
D. Perpetuating past discrimination
200-150 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
Technically this is an example of disparate treatment. Fran has treated this applicant differently than
the other applicants because the person says he speaks Spanish.
Answer option D is incorrect. There is no evidence of past discrimination in this example to make this
choice correct.
Answer option B is incorrect. The disparate impact happens when a seemingly neutral policy has a
disproportionately negative effect on the protected class.
Answer option C is incorrect. Accommodation is not a valid term for this scenario.
Question: 8
As a Senior HR Professional, you should be familiar with non-monetary rewards that your company
provides for its employees. Which of the following is an example of non-monetary reward?
A. Satisfaction from challenging and exciting assignments
B. Esteem from working with other talented people
C. Cash compensation
D. On-site cafeteria
Answer: D
Explanation:
An on-site cafeteria is an example of a non-monetary reward.
Answer option B is incorrect. Esteem from working with other talented people is an extrinsic reward.
Answer option A is incorrect. An intrinsic reward is an outcome that gives satisfaction to an
individual from challenging and exciting assignments. An intrinsic reward encourages employee’s self
esteem.
Answer option C is incorrect. Cash compensation is a monetary reward for employment.
Question: 9
Your organization will be using the point factor technique in their evaluations of job performance.
You need to communicate what the point factor technique accomplishes as you’re the HR
Professional for your organization. Which one of the following best describes the point factor
technique?
A. Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are
documented.
B. Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are
weighted on importance to the employee.
C. Performance factors are identified by the employee and then performance levels within the
factors are weighted based on importance to the organization.
D. Specific compensable factors are identified and then performance levels within the factors are
documented. The different factors and levels are weighted based on importance to the organization.
200-150 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
The point factor technique identifies point of performance based on importance to the organization.
Within each point, levels of performance are created. Both levels and points are then weighted
based on most important to least important, to determine overall performance of each employee.
Answer options C, A, and B are incorrect. These are not valid definitions of the point factor
technique.
Question: 10
What is the FairPay amount that defines, what a person makes, to be considered highly
compensated?
A. $110,000 or more
B. $150,000 or more
C. $100,000 or more
D. $125,000 or more
Answer: C
Explanation:
FairPay determines that a person earning $100,000 or more is considered to be highly compensated.
Answer options A, D, and B are incorrect. The amount is $100,000 or more, not specifically $110,000,
$125,000, or $150,000.

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Microsoft Specialist Microsoft Azure

[New Updated Questions From Google Drive] Preparing for 2017 Popular Microsoft Azure Exam 70-534 Dumps-PDF Free Download Guaranteed Microsoft Certification with 100% Pass Rate on Issuu

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Exam Code: 70-534
Exam Name: Architecting Microsoft Azure Solutions
Updated: Aug 05, 2017
Q&As: 143

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QUESTION 1
You need to design the system that alerts project managers to data changes in the contractor informaton
app.
Which service should you use?
A. Azure Mobile Service
B. Azure Service Bus Message Queueing
C. Azure Queue Messaging
D. Azure Notfcaton Hub
70-534 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
You need to prepare the implementaton of data storage for the contractor informaton app.
What should you?
A. Create a storage account and implement multple data parttons.
B. Create a Cloud Service and a Mobile Service. Implement Entty Group transactons.
C. Create a Cloud Service and a Deployment group. Implement Entty Group transactons.
D. Create a Deployment group and a Mobile Service. Implement multple data parttons.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You need to design a data storage strategy for each applicaton.
In the table below, identfy the strategy that you should use for each applicaton. Make only one selecton in
each column.
Hot Area:
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70-534 dumps Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a soluton for publishing one of the company websites to Azure and confguring it
for remote debugging.
Which two actons should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the soluton.
A. From Visual Studio, atach the debugger to the soluton.
B. Set the applicaton logging level to Verbose and enable logging.
C. Set the Web Server logging level to Informaton and enable logging.
D. Set the Web Server logging level to Verbose and enable logging.
E. From Visual Studio, confgure the site to enable Debugger Ataching and then publish the site.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
The company has two corporate ofces. Customers will access the websites from datacenters around the
world.

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You need to architect the global website strategy to meet the business requirements. Use the drop-down
menus to select the answer choice that answers each queston.
Hot Area:
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70-534 pdf Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 6
You need to confgure the deployment of the storage analysis applicaton.
What should you do?
A. Create a new Mobile Service.
B. Confgure the deployment from source control.
C. Add a new deployment slot.
D. Turn on contnuous integraton.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
You need to design the notfcaton service for the customer-facing mobile app.
Which three actons should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actons from the list
of actons to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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70-534 vce Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 8
You are designing an Azure application that will use a worker role. The worker role will create temporary
files.
You need to minimize storage transaction charges.
Where should you create the files?
A. In Azure local storage
B. In Azure Storage page blobs
C. On an Azure Drive
D. In Azure Storage block blobs
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
You are planning an upgrade strategy for an existing Azure application. Multiple instances of the
application run in Azure. The management team is concerned about application downtime due to a
business service level agreement (SLA).
You are evaluating which change in your environment will require downtime. You need to identify the
changes to the environment that will force downtime.
Which change always requires downtime?
A. Adding an HTTPS endpoint to a web role
B. Upgrading the hosted service by deploying a new package
C. Changing the value of a configuration setting
D. Changing the virtual machine size
70-534 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
An application currently resides on an on-premises virtual machine that has 2 CPU cores 4 GB of RAM 20
GB of hard disk space and a 10 megabit/second network connection.
You plan to migrate the application to Azure. You have the following requirements:
You must not make changes to the application.
You must minimize the costs for hosting the application.
You need to recommend the appropriate virtual machine instance type.
Which virtual machine tier should you recommend?
A. Network Optimized (A Series)
B. General Purpose Compute Basic Tier (A Series)
C. General Purpose Compute Standard Tier (A Series)
D. Optimized Compute (D Series)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
You are designing an Azure development environment. Team members learn Azure development
techniques by training in the development environment.
The development environment must auto scale and load balance additional virtual machine (VM)
instances. You need to recommend the most cost-effective compute-instance size that allows team
members to work with Azure in the development environment.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Al standardVM Instance
B. Azure A2 basic VM Instance
C. Azure A3 basic VM Instance
D. Azure A9 standard VM Instance
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Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
You are designing an Azure application. The application includes services hosted in different geographic
locations. The service locations may change.
You must minimize the cost of communication between services.
You need to recommend an approach for data transmission between your application and Azure services.
The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you recommend?
A. Azure Table storage
B. Service Bus
C. Service Management API
D. Azure Queue storage

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
You are running a Linux guest in Azure Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS). You must run a daily
maintenance task. The maintenance task requires native BASH commands.
You need to configure Azure Automation to perform this task.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create an automation account.
B. Create an Orchestrator runbook.
C. Create an asset credential.
D. Run the Invoke-Workflow Azure PowerShell cmdlet.
E. Import the SSH PowerShell Module.
70-534 pdf 
Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 14
You are designing an Azure web application.
All users must authenticate by using Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) credentials. You need to
recommend an approach to enable single sign-on to the application for domain-authenticated users. Which
two actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use Forms authentication to generate claims.
B. Use the SQL membership provider in the web application.
C. Use Windows Identity Foundation in the web application.
D. Use Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) to generate claims.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
HOTSPOT
A company uses Azure for several virtual machine (VM) and website workloads. The company plans to
assign administrative roles to a specific group of users. You have a resource group named GROUP1 and a
virtual machine named VM2.
The users have the following responsibilities:

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You need to assign the appropriate level of privileges to each of the administrators by using the principle of
least privilege.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate target objects and permission levels in the answer
area.
Hot Area:
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70-534 vce Correct Answer:
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Cisco

[New Updated Questions From Google Drive] 100% Pass Rate CCIE Data Center v2.0 400-151 Dumps | Verified 400-151 Exam Video Questions And Answers with A High Score

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Exam Code: 400-151
Exam Name: CCIE Data Center Written Exam v2.0
Updated: Aug 05, 2017
Q&As: 232

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1.What is the best reason for using a standard greeting when answering telephone calls?
A. Using a standard greeting complies with Service Desk standards.
B. Using a standard greeting ensures consistent service.
C. Using a standard greeting makes the customer feel humble.
D. Using a standard greeting prevents individuals developing their own greetings.
400-151 exam Answer: B
2.What is a best practice for demonstrating personal accountability in your work.?
A. Blame others for mistakes.
B. Never admit that you made a mistake.
C. Perform your duties in a manner that meets with company policy.
D. Work according to your mood.
Answer: C
3.What is a best practice to follow when documenting an Incident?
A. Always take a break before you write anything down.
B. Avoid making negative references about the customer in the documentation.
C. Make sure that others know how the customer treated you by documenting the interaction.
D. Use emoticons to communicate the personality of a customer.
400-151 dumps Answer: B
4.What factor is most important in determining the priority of an Incident?
A. The caller connection to the Service Desk.
B. The caller emotional state.
C. The Incident impact on the business.
D. The Incident impact on the Service Desk.
Answer: C
5.What is a benefit of teamwork?
A. Better time management.
B. Higher employee morale.
C. Improved conformity.
D. Increased competition.
400-151 pdf Answer: B
6.What is a best practice for reducing conflict?
A. Agree with the customer.
B. Interject your opinion into the conversation.
C. Let the customer know that you are in charge.
D. Show the customer respect.
Answer: D
7.What information must be logged for every Incident?
A. A corrected version of the customer description of the Incident.

B. A note aboutthe customer preferred desksidetechnician.
C. Any commitments made to the customer.
D. Your opinion about the customer technical expertise.
400-151 vce Answer: C
8.Which statement best describes a good leader?
A. Good leaders demonstrate absolute control over their teams.
B. Good leaders do not need to offer incentives.
C. Good leaders encourage initiative.
D. Good leaders make all the decisions for their staff.
Answer: C
9.When you have a call that cannot be resolved, what is the last step you will take prior to disengaging
from the customer?
A. Confirm the details provided by the customer.
B. Determine the priority of the Incident.
C. Set the customer expectation for the next contact.
D. Verify the customer eligibility for service.
400-151 exam Answer: C
10.What is the best description of your role in supporting customers?
A. Avoid confrontation at all costs.
B. Deliver consistent, high quality support.
C. Escalate calls as appropriate.
D. Minimise talk time.
Answer: B
11.Your help desk/Service Desk wishes to become a model for best practice, what is one of the main
sources of excellent information and advice to help achieve this?
A. A web master magazine.
B. Senior management meetings.
C. Knowledge Centred Support. D.
The marketing department.
400-151 dumps Answer: C
12.What is the best way of using silent time effectively?
A. Build a rapport with your customer.
B. Check your e-mail.
C. Identify the best time for your break.
D. Write an e-mail to a colleague.
Answer: A
13.Which of the following techniques is the best one for reducing and eliminating conflict during a call?
A. Match the customer attitude.

B. Refrain from interrupting the customer.
C. Stop using the customer name.
D. Tell the customer you feel sorry for them.
400-151 pdf Answer: B
14.What type of question will best encourage a customer to talk more about their Incident?
A. Closed questions.
B. Open questions.
C. Technical questions.
D. Personal questions.
Answer: B
15.Which is a common physical symptom of stress?
A. You are more susceptible to colds.
B. You rarely take lunch breaks.
C. You work longer hours.
D. Your colleagues all seem busy.
400-151 vce Answer: A

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Security Expert
nse4

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Exam Code: NSE4
Exam Name: Fortinet Network Security Expert 4 Written Exam (400)
Updated: Jul 13, 2017
Q&As: 274

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nse4

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Question No : 1

NSE4

Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
B. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
C. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
NSE4 dumps 
Answer: B

Question No : 2
nse4

Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Fully ducted supply, flooded return
B. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: A

Question No : 3  Click the Exhibit button.
nse4

Which air distribution method is displayed in the exhibit?
A. Flooded supply, flooded return
B. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
NSE4 exam 
Answer: A

 

Question No : 4 What is the highest cost UPS configuration?
A. System + system
B. Parallel redundant
C. Isolated redundant
D. Distributed redundant
Answer: A


Question No : 5 What is the difference between an undervoltage and a sag?
A. A sag lasts less time than an undervoltage condition.
B. A sag has less of a voltage drop than an undervoltage condition.
C. A sag is due to downstream loads and undervoltage is due to the power source.
D. A sag occurs in low voltage distribution and undervoltage occurs in high voltage
distribution.
NSE4 pdf Answer: A


Question No : 6 What is required for the transfer of heat from one object to another?
A. A difference in airflow
B. A difference in volume
C. A difference in pressure
D. A difference in temperature
Answer: D


Question No : 7 What does the CFD acronym stand for?
A. Certified Field Dichotomy
B. Circular Flow Determination
C. Computational Finite Deviation

D. Computational Fluid Dynamics
NSE4 vce Answer: D

Question No : 8 The rear of an IT equipment rack is fitted with a duct that is connected to a drop ceiling
plenum; the plenum is connected by a duct to the perimeter CRAC unit. The CRAC unit
discharges air into a raised floor. The IT equipment rack is located above a hole in the
raised floor which allows conditioned air to enter the rack.
This is an example of which type of air distribution system?
A. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
B. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Fully ducted supply, fully ducted return
Answer: D

Question No : 9 Cooling towers are a typical component of which heat rejection system?
A. Water cooled system
B. Glycol cooled system
C. Air cooled split system
D. Air cooled self-contained system
NSE4 dumps Answer: A

Question No : 10 Which type of humidification system uses quartz lamps extended over an open pool of water to release water vapor?
A. Infrared humidifier
B. Ultrasonic humidifier
C. Electromagnetic humidifier
D. Steam canister humidifier
Answer: A

Question No : 11 What is an advantage of choosing a four-post open frame rack over a two-post open fram
rack?
A. Lower cost
B. Smaller footprint
C. Easier assembly
D. Increased strength
NSE4 exam Answer: D

Question No : 12 How do enclosures improve rack system cooling?
A. By improving natural air flow
B. By improving fire suppression
C. By allowing hot and cold air to mix together
D. By preventing hot and cold air from mixing together
Answer: D

Question No : 13 An infrared scan of cabling can detect what two problems? (Choose two.)
A. An overloaded circuit
B. A loose connection
C. Compatibility errors
D. Electrical interference
NSE4 pdf Answer: A,B

Question No : 14 What are three benefits of Inergen? (Choose three.)
A. It is non-conductive.
B. It has zero ozone depletion potential.
C. It has a low pressure delivery system.
D. It requires less storage tanks than Halon.
E. It is safe to discharge in an occupied area.
Answer: A,B,E

Question No : 15 What is a component of the network-critical physical infrastructure (NCPI)?
A. Voice over IP
B. Fire protection
C. Office supplies
D. Desktop application software
NSE4 vce Answer: B

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Server and Storage Systems
1Z0-443

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Exam Code: 1Z0-443
Exam Name: Oracle Taleo Learn Cloud Service 2016 Implementation Essentials
Updated: Jul 02, 2017
Q&As: 78

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1Z0-443

Share some Oracle Specialist 1Z0-443 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

Question: 37
In an emergency treatment situation, a health care provider:
A. Must obtain the signature of the patient before disclosing PHI to another provider.
B. Must contact a relative of the patient before disclosing PHI to another provider.
C. May use their best judgment in order to provide appropriate treatment.
D. May use PHI but may not disclose it to another provider
E. Must inform the patient about the Notice of Privacy Practices before delivering treatment.
1Z0-443 dumps 
Answer: C


Question: 38
Patient identifiable information may include:
A. Country of birth.
B. Telephone number,
C. Information on past 3 employers.
D. Patient credit reports.
E. Smart card-based digital signatures.
Answer: B


Question: 39
Select the FALSE statement regarding the administrative requirements of the HIPAA privacy rule.
A. A covered entity must mitigate, to the extent practicable, any harmful effect that it becomes
aware of from the use or disclosure of PHI in violation of its policies and procedures or HIPAA
regulations.
B. A covered must not in any way intimidate, retaliate, or discriminate against any individual or other
entity, which tiles a compliant.
C. A covered entity may not require individuals to waive their rights as a condition for treatments
payment, enrollment in a health plan, or eligibility for benefits,
D. A covered entity must retain the documents required by the regulations for a period of six years
E. A covered entity must change its policies and procedures to comply with HIPAA regulations no
later than three years after the change in law
1Z0-443 exam 
Answer: E

Question: 40
Select the correct statement regarding the requirements for oral communication in the HIPAA
regulations.
A. Covered entities must reasonably safeguard PHI, including oral communications, from any
intentional or unintentional use or disclosure that is in violation of the Privacy Rule.
B. Covered entities must have in place appropriate administrative, technical, and physical safeguards
to protect the privacy of de-Identified data
C. Covered entities are prohibited from marketing through oral communications.
D. The Privacy Rule requires covered entities to document any information, including oral
communications, which is used or disclosed for TPO purposes.
E. The Privacy Rule will often require major structural changes, such as soundproof rooms and
encryption of telephone systems, to provide the “reasonable safeguards” of oral communications
required by the regulations.
Answer: A


Question: 41
A doctor sends patient records to another company for data entry services. A bonded delivery
service is used for the transfer. The records are returned to the doctor after entry is complete, using
the same delivery service. The entry facility and the network they use are secure. The doctor is
named as his own Privacy Officer in written policies. The doctor has written procedures for this
process and all involved parties are documented as having been trained in them The doctor does not
have written authorizations to disclose Protected Health Information (PHI). Is the doctor in violation
of the Privacy Rule?
A. No – This would be considered an allowed “routine disclosure between the doctor and his
business partner.
B. Yes – There is no exception to the requirement for an authorization prior to disclosure, no matter
how well intentioned or documented.
C. Yes – a delivery service is not considered a covered entity
D. Yes – to be a “routine disclosure” all the parties must have their own Privacy Officer as mandated
by l-IIPAA.
E. Yes – this is not considered a part of “treatment”, which is one of the valid exceptions to the
Privacy Rule.
1Z0-443 pdf Answer: A

Question: 42
Which of the following is example of “Payment” as defined in the HIPAA regulations?
A. Annual Audits
B. Claims Management
C. Salary disbursement to the workforce having direct treatment relationships.
D. Life Insurance underwriting
E. Cash given to the pharmacist for the purchase of an over-the-counter drug medicine
Answer: B


Question: 43
Select the correct statement regarding the responsibilities of providers and payers under HIPAA’s
privacy rule.
A. Optionally, they might develop a mechanism of accounting for all disclosures of PHI for purposes
other than TPO.
B. They must redesign their offices, workspaces, and storage systems to afford maximum protection
to PHI from intentional and unintentional use and disclosure.
C. They must develop methods for disclosing only the minimum amount of protected information
necessary to accomplish any intended purpose.
D. They must obtain a “top secret” security clearance for all member of their workforce.
E. They must identify business associates that need to use PHI to accomplish their function and
develop authorization forms to allow PHI to be shared with these business associates.
1Z0-443 vce Answer: C


Question: 44
The code set that must be used to describe or identify dentists services and procedures is:
A. lcD-9-cM, Volumes 1 and 2
B. CPT-4
C. CDT
D. ICD-9-CM, Volume 3
E. HCPCS
Answer: C

Question: 45
The Security Rule requires that the covered entity identifies a security official who is responsible for
the development and implementation of the policies and procedures. This is addressed under which
security standard?:
A. Security incident Procedures
B. Response and Reporting
C. Assigned Security Responsibility
D. Termination Procedures
E. Facility Access Controls
1Z0-443 dumps Answer: C


Question: 46
This code set describes drugs:
A. ICD-9-CM, Volumes 1 and 2.
B. CPT-4.
C. CDT
D. ICD-9-CM, Volume 3.
E. NDC.
Answer: E


Question: 47
Within the context of a transaction set, the fields that comprise a hierarchical level are referred to as
a(n):
A. Loop
B. Enumerator.
C. Identifier.
D. Data segment.
E. Code set.
1Z0-443 exam  Answer: A

Question: 48
Health information is protected by the Privacy Rule as long as:
A. The authorization has been revoked by the physician
B. The patient remains a citizen of the United States.
C. The information is under the control of HHS.
D. The information is in the possession of a covered entity.
E. The information is not also available on paper forms.
Answer: D


Question: 49
Which one of the following is a required implementation specification of the Security Management
Process?
A. Risk Analysis
B. Access Control and Validation Procedures
C. Integrity Controls
D. Access Authorization
E. Termination Procedures
1Z0-443 pdf Answer: A


Question: 50
A business associate:
A. Requires PKI for the provider and the patient.
B. Is electronically stored information about an individual’s lifetime health status and health care.
C. Is another name for an HMO.
D. Identifies all non-profit organizations.
E. Is a person or an entity that on behalf of the covered entity performs or assists in the performance
of a function or activity involving the use or disclosure of health-related information.
Answer: E

Question: 51
Individually identifiable health information (IIHI) includes information that is:
A. Transmitted to a business associate for payment purposes only.
B. Stored on a smart card only by the patient.
C. Created or received by a credit company that provided a personal loan for surgical procedures.
D. Created or received by a health care clearinghouse for claim processing.
E. Requires the use of biometrics for access to records.
1Z0-443 vce Answer: D


Question: 52
Select the correct statement regarding the administrative requirements of the HIPAA privacy rule
A. A covered entity must apply disciplinary sanctions against members of its workforce who fail to
comply with the privacy policies and procedures of the covered entity.
B. A covered entity need not train all members of its workforce whose functions are materially
affected by a change in policy or procedure
C. A covered entity must designate, and document, a contact person responsible for receiving
acknowledgements of Notice of Privacy Practice.
D. A covered entity may require individuals to waive their rights.
E. A covered entity must provide maximum safeguards for PHI from any intentional or unintentional
use or disclosure that is in violation of the regulations and to limit incidental uses and disclosures
made pursuant to permitted or required use or disclosure.
Answer: A

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ICND1
100-105

[New Updated Questions] High Pass Rate Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Details | CCENT ICND1 v3.0 100-105 Dumps PDF Study Guide On Yumpu

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Exam Code: 100-105
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Updated: Jun 14, 2017
Q&As: 239
Exam Information: https://www.pass4itsure.com/100-105.html

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  • The OSPF topics where moved to the Pass4itsure 100-105 dumps and curriculum.
  • Device management and maintenance topics where moved from the ICND2 exam and curriculum into the ICND1 exam and curriculum.
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The Pass4itsure 100-105 dumps includes topics on the operation of IP data networks, LAN switching technologies, IPv6, IP routing technologies, IP services (DHCP, NAT, ACLs), network device security, and basic troubleshooting. The exam is closed book and no outside reference materials are allowed.

100-105

Share some Cisco Specialist 100-105 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 9
ROUTER# show ip route
192.168.12.0/24 is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks
C 192.168.12.64 /28 is directly connected, Loopback1
C 192.168.12.32 /28 is directly connected, Ethernet0
C 192.168.12.48 /28 is directly connected, Loopback0
O 192.168.12.236 /30 via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0

C 192.168.12.232 /30 is directly connected, Serial0 O 192.168.12.245 /30 via 192.168.12.233,
00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240 /30 via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.253 /30 via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.249 /30 via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240/30 via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial 0
To what does the 128 refer to in the router output above?
A. OSPF cost
B. OSPF priority
C. OSPF hop count
D. OSPF ID number
E. OSPF administrative distance
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105

A network associate has configured OSPF with the command:
City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in
OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this
configuration statement? (Choose three.)
A. FastEthernet0 /0
B. FastEthernet0 /1
C. Serial0/0
D. Serial0/1.102
E. Serial0/1.103
F. Serial0/1.104
100-105 
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105

Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. This is a default route.
B. Adding the subnet mask is optional for the ip route command.
C. This will allow any host on the 172.16.1.0 network to reach all known destinations beyond RouterA.
D. This command is incorrect, it needs to specify the interface, such as s0/0/0 rather than an IP address.
E. The same command needs to be entered on RouterA so that hosts on the 172.16.1.0 network can
reach network 10.0.0.0.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 12
The ip helper-address command does what?
A. assigns an IP address to a host
B. resolves an IP address from a DNS server
C. relays a DHCP request across networks
D. resolves an IP address overlapping issue
100-105 dumps 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

100-105

Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. How can the network administrator solve
this problem?
A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network.
B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.
C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the
original switch.
D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105

A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the serial interfaces. The output from
the show interfaces command on both routers shows that the serial interface is up, line protocol is down.
Given the partial output for the show running-config in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of this
problem?
A. The serial cable is bad.
B. The MTU is incorrectly configured.
C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured.
D. The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
100-105 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105

Serial 0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet 0/0 LAN.
How can this problem be corrected?
A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.
B. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0.
C. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0
D. Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0
E. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
100-105

100-105

Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA?
A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password
C. only connections from the local network will be possible
D. console access to SwitchA requires a password
100-105 vce 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105

A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch
port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?
A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network
function would resume.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do
to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit
100-105

A user cannot reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department are not having a problem.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. IP routing is not enabled.
B. The default gateway is not in the same subnet.
C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.
D. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC.
E. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.
100-105 exam 
Correct Answer: C

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