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Effective Cisco 500-220 ECMS Exam Dumps Questions Share

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Cisco 500-220 ECMS test

Q#1

What is a feature of distributed Layer 3 roaming?

A. An MX Security Appliance is not required as a concentrator.
B. An MX Security Appliance is required as a concentrator.
C. All wireless client traffic can be split-tunneled.
D. All wireless client traffic is tunneled.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/Architectures_and_Best_Practices/Cisco_Meraki_Best_Practice_Design/Best_Practice_Design__MR_Wireless/Wireless_Layer_3_Roaming_Best_Practices

Q#2

Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions are required to optimize load balancing asymmetrically with a 4:1 ratio between links? (Choose two.)

A. Change the primary uplink to “none”.
B. Add an internet traffic preference that defines the load-balancing ratio as 4:1.
C. Enable load balancing.
D. Set the speed of the cellular uplink to zero.
E. Change the assigned speeds of WAN 1 and WAN 2 so that the ratio is 4:1.

Correct Answer: BC

Q#3

A Cisco Meraki MV camera is monitoring an office and its field of vision currently captures work desks and employee computer screens. However, recording employee computer screens is prohibited by local regulation.

Which feature in Dashboard can be used to preserve the current position of the camera while also meeting regulation requirements?

A. zone exclusion
B. privacy window
C. area or interest
D. sensor crop
E. restricted mode

Correct Answer: E

Q#4

Refer to the exhibit. This Dashboard organization uses Co-Termination licensing model.
What happens when an additional seven APs are claimed on this network without adding licenses?

A. All APs immediately stop functioning.
B. All network devices stop functioning in 30 days.
C. One AP Immediately stops functioning.
D. All APs stop functioning in 30 days.

Correct Answer: B

Q#5

Refer to the exhibit. Which outcome occurs when logging is set to Enabled?

A. Outbound flows are sent to a configured syslog server if a syslog sender is configured for flows.
B. The hits counter within this section is now enabled.
C. This firewall rule is now enabled.
D. Inbound flows are sent to a configured syslog server if a syslog server configured for flows.

Correct Answer: D

Q#6

Which two primary metrics does Meraki Insight use to calculate the Application Performance Score? (Choose two.)

A. Maximum Jitter
B. Total Bandwidth Usage
C. Maximum Latency
D. Per-flow Goodput
E. Application Response Time

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://cloudcontrolled.uk/wp-content/uploads/2018/08/MerakiInsight.pdf (04)

Q#7

Which Cisco Meraki product must be deployed in addition to Systems Manager so that Systems Manager Sentry enrollment can be used?

A. MS Switch
B. Meraki Insight
C. MR Access Point
D. MV Smart Camera

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://meraki.cisco.com/blog/tag/systems-manager/page/4/

Q#8

How is high-availability supported for Cisco Meraki devices?

A. Only the MX Security Appliances that use VRRP support high availability.
B. An active/active high-availability pair is recommended for MX Security Appliances.
C. The MX Security Appliances and MS Series Switches that use VRRP support an active/passive high-availability pair.
D. The MX Security Appliances and MS Series Switches that use HSRP support an active/passive high-availability pair.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MX/Deployment_Guides/MX_Warm_Spare_-_High_Availability_Pair

Q#9

Which API endpoint clones a new Organization?

A. POST /organizations/clone/{organizationId}
B. PUT /organizations/{organizationId}/clone
C. POST /organizations/{organizationId}/new
D. POST /organizations/{organizationId}/clone

Correct Answer: C

Q#10

For which two reasons can an organization become “Out of License”? (Choose two.)

A. licenses that are in the wrong network
B. more hardware devices than device licenses
C. expired device license
D. licenses that do not match the serial numbers in the organization
E. MR licenses that do not match the MR models in the organization

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Licensing/Meraki_Licensing_FAQs

Q#11

Refer to the exhibit. A packet arrives on the VPN concentrator with source IP 10.168.70.3 and destined for IP 10.116.32.4. What is the next hop for the packet, based on this concentrator routing table?

A. The concentrator gateway (10.128.124.62) is the next hop.
B. Not enough detail is available to determine the next hop.
C. The packet is stopped.
D. The Auto VPN peer “Store 1532 ?appliance” is the next hop.

Correct Answer: B

Q#12

Refer to the exhibit. Which IDS/IPS mode is the MX Security Appliance configured for?

A. quarantine
B. prevention
C. detection
D. blocking

Correct Answer: B

Q#13

What is the best practice Systems Manager enrollment method when deploying corporate-owned iOS devices?

A. manual
B. Apple Configurator
C. Sentry enrollment
D. DEP

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://meraki.cisco.com/lib/pdf/meraki_whitepaper_ios.pdf

Q#14

A new application needs to be pushed to all iOS devices. Some devices report “NotNow” in the event log and do not install the application. What does the “NotNow” event indicate?

A. The application requires the most recent iOS version.
B. The device is locked with a passcode.
C. The device cannot connect to Apple servers.
D. The device cannot connect to Cisco Meraki servers.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://community.meraki.com/t5/Mobile-Device-Management/Check-NotNow-Status/td-p/3887

Q#15

A customer wants to use Microsoft Azure to host corporate application servers.
Which feature does the customer get by using a vMX appliance rather than connecting directly to Azure by VPN?

A. malware protection
B. SD-WAN
C. next-generation firewall
D. intrusion prevention

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1

You have the Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) users shown in the following table.

You create a conditional access policy that has the following settings: The Assignments settings are configured as follows:

-Users and groups: Group1
-Cloud apps: Exchange Online
-Conditions: Include All device states, exclude Device marked as compliant Access controls is set to Block access.

For each of the following statements, select yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1:
Yes. User1 is in Group1. The Conditional Access Policy applies to Group1. The Conditional Access Policy blocks access unless the device is marked as compliant.
BitLocker is disabled for Device1. Device1 is in Group3 which is assigned device Policy1. The BitLocker policy in Policy1 is ‘not configured’ so BitLocker is not required.
Therefore, Device1 is compliant so User1 can access Exchange online from Device1.

Box 2:
No. User1 is in Group1. The Conditional Access Policy applies to Group1. The Conditional Access Policy blocks access unless the device is marked as compliant.
BitLocker is disabled for Device2. Device2 is in Group4 which is assigned device Policy2. The BitLocker policy in Policy2 is ‘Required so BitLocker is required.
Therefore, Device2 is not compliant so User1 cannot access Exchange online from Device2.

Box3:
Yes. User2 is in Group2. The Conditional Access Policy applies to Group1. The Conditional Access Policy does not apply to Group2. So even though Device2 is non-compliant, User2 can access Exchange Online using Device2 because there is no Conditional Access Policy preventing him/her from doing so.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/conditions

QUESTION 2

Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that contains the users shown in the following table.

The tenant includes a security group named Admin1. Admin1 will be used to manage administrative accounts. You need to identify which users can perform the following administrative tasks:

1. Create a guest user account
2. Add User3 to Admin1

Which users should you identify for each task? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

A User Administrator is the only role listed that can create user accounts included Guest user accounts. A Global Administrator can also create user accounts. A User Administrator is also the only role listed that can modify the group membership of users.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/users-groups-roles/directory-assign-admin-roles

QUESTION 3

Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain. The domain contains 2,000 computers that run Windows 10.

You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You implement password hash synchronization and Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Seamless Single Sign-On (Seamless SSO).
You need to ensure that users can use Seamless SSO from Windows 10 computers.

What should you do?

A. Create a conditional access policy in Azure AD.
B. Deploy an Azure AD Connect staging server.
C. Join the computers to Azure AD.
D. Modify the Intranet zone settings by using Group Policy

Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-sso-quick-start

QUESTION 4

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 tenant.
You suspect that several Office 365 features were recently updated.
You need to view a list of the features that were recently updated in the tenant.
Solution: You use Monitoring and reports from the Compliance admin center.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

Depending on what your organization\’s Office 365 subscription includes, the Dashboard in Security and Compliance includes several widgets, such as Threat Management Summary, Threat Protection Status, Global Weekly Threat Detections, Malware, etc.

The Compliance admin center in Microsoft 365 contains much of the same information but also includes additional entries focusing on alerts, data insights.

The Monitoring and reports section from the Compliance admin center does not display a list of the features that were recently updated in the tenant so this solution does not meet the goal.

To meet the goal, you need to use the Message center in the Microsoft 365 admin center.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/admin/manage/message-center?view=o365-worldwide

QUESTION 5

Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain named Contoso. local. The domain contains five domain controllers.

Your company purchases Microsoft 365 and creates a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com.

You plan to implement pass-through authentication.
You need to prepare the environment for the planned implementation of pass-through authentication.

Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Modify the email address attribute for each user account.
B. From the Azure portal, add a custom domain name.
C. From Active Directory Domains and Trusts, add a UPN suffix.
D. Modify the User logon name for each user account.
E. From the Azure portal, configure an authentication method.
F. From a domain controller, install an Authentication Agent.

Correct Answer: BCF

To implement pass-through authentication, you need to install and configure Azure AD Connect.

The on-premise Active Directory domain is named Contoso. local. Before you can configure Azure AD Connect, you need to purchase a routable domain, for example, contoso.com. You then need to add the domain contoso.com to Microsoft as a custom domain name.

The user accounts in the Active Directory domain need to be configured to use the domain name contoso.com as a UPN suffix. You need to add contoso.com to the Active Directory first by using Active Directory Domains and Trusts to add contoso.com add a UPN suffix. You can then configure each account to use the new UPN suffix.

An Authentication Agent is required on a domain controller to perform the authentication when pass-through authentication is used.

When the custom domain and user accounts are configured, you can install and configure Azure AD Connect. An Authentication Agent is installed when you select the pass-through authentication option in the Azure AD Connect configuration or you can install the Authentication Agent manually.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-pta-quick-start

QUESTION 6

Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains five domain controllers.

Your company purchases Microsoft 365 and creates a Microsoft Azure Directory (Azure AD) tenant named Contoso. Microsoft, com.

You plan to establish federation authentication between on-premises Active Directory and the Azure AD tenant by using Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).

You need to establish a federation.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

The on-premises Active Directory domain is named contoso.com. Before you can configure federation authentication between on-premises Active Directory and the Azure AD tenant, you need to add the domain contoso.com to Microsoft 365.

You do this by adding a custom domain name.
The next step is to establish the federation. You can configure AD FS by using Azure AD Connect.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-install-custom#configuring-federation-withad-fs

QUESTION 7

Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com that includes the users
shown in the following table.

Group2 is a member of Group1.
You assign a Microsoft Office 365 Enterprise E3 license to Group1.
How many Office 365 E3 licenses are assigned?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: C

Group-based licensing currently does not support groups that contain other groups (nested groups). If you apply a license to a nested group, only the immediate first-level user members of the group have the licenses applied.

Therefore, User2 will not be assigned a license.
When Azure AD assigns group licenses, any users without a specified usage location inherit the location of the directory. Therefore, User3 will be assigned a license and his usage location will be set to the location of the directory.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/users-groups-roles/licensing-groups-assign
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/users-groups-roles/licensing-group-advanced

QUESTION 8

You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. A user named User1 has files on a Windows 10 device is shown in the following table.

In Azure Information Protection, you create a label named Label1 that is configured to apply automatically. Label1 is configured as shown in the following exhibit.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

The phrase to match is “im” and it is case sensitive. The phrase must also appear at least twice.
Box 1: No
File1.docx contain the word “import” once only
Box 2: Yes
File2.docx contains two occurrences of the word “import” as well as the word “imported”
Box 3: No
File3.docx contains “IM” but he is not the correct letter case.

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/information-protection/configure-policy-classification

QUESTION 9

SIMULATION
Please wait while the virtual machine loads. Once loaded, you may proceed to the lab section. This may take a few minutes, and the wait time will not be deducted from your overall test time.

When the Next button is available, click it to access the lab section. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste, ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.

Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\’t matter how you accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task.

Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you are able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.

Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to the lab.

You may now click next to proceed to the lab.
Lab information Use the following login credentials as needed:
To enter your username, place your cursor in the Sign inbox and click on the username below.

To enter your password, place your cursor in the Enter password box and click on the password below.

Microsoft 365 Username:
[email protected]
Microsoft 365 Password: 3andYWyjse-6-d
If the Microsoft 365 portal does not load successfully in the browser, press CTRL-K to reload the portal in a new browser tab.

The following information is for technical support purposes only:
Lab Instance: 10887751
You hire a new Microsoft 365 administrator named Nestor Wilke. Nestor Wilke will begin working for your organization in several days.

You need to ensure that Nestor Wilke is prevented from using his account until he begins working.

A. See below.

Correct Answer: A

You need to sign in status for the account to ‘Blocked’. Blocking doesn\’t stop the account from receiving email and it doesn\’t deletes any data.

1. On the home page of the Microsoft 365 admin center, type the user\’s name into the Search box.
2. Select the Nestor Wilke account in the search results.
3. In the ‘Sign-in status’ section of the account properties, click the Edit link.
4. Select ‘Block the user from signing in and click the Save button.

QUESTION 10

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

Your company has a main office and three branch offices. All the branch offices connect to the main office by using a WAN link. The main office has a high-speed Internet connection. All the branch offices connect to the Internet by using the
main office connection.

Users use Microsoft Outlook 2016 to connect to a Microsoft Exchange Server mailbox hosted in the main office.

The users report that when the WAN link in their office becomes unavailable, they cannot access their mailbox.

You create a Microsoft 365 subscription and then migrate all the user data to Microsoft 365.

You need to ensure that all the users can continue to use Outlook to receive email messages if a WAN link fails.

Solution: You deploy a site-to-site VPN from each branch office to Microsoft Azure.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

The question states that the branch offices connect to the Internet by using the main office connections. Therefore, all Internet traffic goes over the WAN link between the branch office and the main office. After the migration, the users connect to their mailboxes hosted in Exchange Online over the Internet and therefore over the WAN link.

If the WAN link goes down, the branch office users will not be able to connect to the Internet and therefore will not be able to access their email using Outlook.

A site-to-site VPN from each branch office to Microsoft Azure would still use the WAN link so this answer does achieve the goal.

The solution is to add a direct connection to the Internet from the branch offices, so their Internet traffic does not go over the WAN link.

QUESTION 11

HOTSPOT
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain named adatum.com that syncs to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) by using the Azure AD Connect Express Settings. Password writeback is disabled.

You create a user named User1 and enter Pass in the Password field as shown in the following exhibit.

The Azure AD password policy is configured as shown in the following exhibit.
Hot Area:

Box 1: Yes
The question states that User1 is synced to Azure AD. This tells us that the short password (Pass) meets the on-premise Active Directory password policy and you were able to create the on-premise account for User1. The on-premise Active Directory password policy applies over the Azure AD password policy for synced user accounts.

Box 2: No
Self-Service Password Reset would need to be configured.

Box 3: Yes
The password for the Azure AD User1 account will expire after 90 days according to the Azure AD password policy. If the on-premise password policy has a shorter password expiration period, User1 would have the change his/her on-premise AD password. The new password would then sync to Azure AD.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-install-express

QUESTION 12

Your company recently purchased a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You enable Microsoft Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for all 500 users in the Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant.

You need to generate a report that lists all the users who completed the Azure MFA registration process.

What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A. From Azure Cloud Shell, run the Get-AzureADUser cmdlet.
B. From Azure Cloud Shell, run the Get-MsolUser cmdlet.
C. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, use the Usage and insights blade.
D. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, use the Risky sign-ins blade.

Correct Answer: B

You can use the Get-MsolUser cmdlet to generate a report that lists all the users who completed the Azure MFA registration process.

The full command would look like this:
Get-MsolUser -All | Where-Object {$_.StrongAuthenticationMethods.Count -eq 0} | Select-Object -Property UserPrincipalName

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-reporting

QUESTION 13

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default named contoso.com. Three files were created on February 1, 2019, as shown in the following table.

On March 1, 2019, you create two retention labels named Label1 and label2.
The settings for Label1 are configured as shown in the Label1 exhibit. (Click the Label1 tab.) Label 1

The settings for Label2 are configured as shown in the Label1 exhibit. (Click the Label2 tab.) Label 2

You apply the retention labels to Exchange email, SharePoint sites, and OneDrive accounts. For each of the following
statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No Retention overrides deletion.

Box 2: No
Content in a document library will be moved to the first-stage Recycle Bin within 7 days of disposition, and then permanently deleted another 93 days after that. Thus 100 days in total.

Box 3: No
Items in an Exchange mailbox will be permanently deleted within 14 days of disposition.

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/labels
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/disposition-reviews

QUESTION 14

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to prevent users from accessing your Microsoft SharePoint Online sites unless the users are connected to your on-premises network.

Solution: From the Microsoft 365 admin center, you configure the Organization profile settings.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

You need to configure a trusted location and a conditional access policy.

Conditional Access in SharePoint Online can be configured to use an IP Address white list to allow access.

Reference:
https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/Microsoft-SharePoint-Blog/Conditional-Access-in-SharePoint-Online-andOneDrive-for/ba-p/46678

QUESTION 15

You have an on-premises web application that is published by using a URL of https://app.contoso.local.
You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription.

Several external users must be able to connect to the web application.
You need to recommend a solution for external access to the application. The solution must support multi-factor authentication.

Which two actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. From an on-premises server, install a connector and then publish the app.
B. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, enable an Application Proxy.
C. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, create a conditional access policy.
D. From an on-premises server, install an Authentication Agent.
E. Republish the web application by using https://app.contoso.com.

Correct Answer: AB

Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) has an Application Proxy service that enables users to access on-premises applications by signing in with their Azure AD account. The application proxy enables you to take advantage of Azure AD security features like Conditional Access and Multi-Factor Authentication.

To use Application Proxy, install a connector on each Windows server you\\’re using with the Application Proxy service.

The connector is an agent that manages the outbound connection from the on-premises application servers to the Application Proxy in Azure AD.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/manage-apps/application-proxy-add-on-premises-application

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CS0-001 questions

QUESTION 1
A security analyst is preparing for the company\\’s upcoming audit. Upon review of the company\\’s latest vulnerability
scan, the security analyst finds the following open issues: Which of the following vulnerabilities should be prioritized for
remediation FIRST?

cs0-001 exam questions-q1

A. ICMP timestamp request remote date disclosure
B. Anonymous FTP enabled
C. Unsupported web server detection
D. Microsoft Windows SMB service enumeration via \srvsvc
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
A nuclear facility manager determined the need to monitor utilization of water within the facility. A startup company just
announced a state-of-the-art solution to address the need for integrating the business and ICS network. The solution
requires a very small agent to be installed on the ICS equipment. Which of the following is the MOST important security
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A. Run a penetration test on the installed agent.
B. Require that the solution provider make the agent source code available for analysis.
C. Require through guides for administrator and users.
D. Install the agent for a week on a test system and monitor the activities.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following systems or services is MOST likely to exhibit issues stemming from the Heartbleed vulnerability
(Choose two.)
A. SSH daemons
B. Web servers
C. Modbus devices
D. TLS VPN services
E. IPSec VPN concentrators
F. SMB service
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 4
Organizational policies require vulnerability remediation on severity 7 or greater within one week. Anything with a
severity less than 7 must be remediated within 30 days. The organization also requires security teams to investigate the
details of a vulnerability before performing any remediation. If the investigation determines the finding is a false positive,
no remediation is performed and the vulnerability scanner configuration is updates to omit the false positive from future
scans:
The organization has three Apache web servers:

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Which of the following actions should the security team perform?
A. Ignore the false positive on 192.168.1.22
B. Remediate 192.168.1.20 within 30 days
C. Remediate 192.168.1.22 within 30 days
D. Investigate the false negative on 192.168.1.20
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
After reviewing the following packet, a cybersecurity analyst has discovered an unauthorized service is running on a
company\\’s computer.

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Which of the following ACLs, if implemented, will prevent further access ONLY to the unauthorized service and will not
impact other services?
A. DENY TCP ANY HOST 10.38.219.20 EQ 3389
B. DENY IP HOST 10.38.219.20 ANY EQ 25
C. DENY IP HOST192.168.1.10 HOST 10.38.219.20 EQ 3389
D. DENY TCP ANY HOST 192.168.1.10 EQ 25
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A centralized tool for organizing security events and managing their response and resolution is known as:
A. SIEM
B. HIPS
C. Syslog
D. Wireshark
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
An analyst suspects a large database that contains customer information and credit card data was exfiltrated to a known
hacker group in a foreign country. Which of the following incident response steps should the analyst take FIRST?
A. Immediately notify law enforcement, as they may be able to help track down the hacker group before customer
information is disseminated.
B. Draft and publish a notice on the company\\’s website about the incident, as PCI regulations require immediate
disclosure in the case of a breach of PII or card data.
C. Isolate the server, restore the database to a time before the vulnerability occurred, and ensure the database is
encrypted.
D. Document and verify all evidence and immediately notify the company\\’s Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to
better understand the next steps.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A security analyst received several service tickets reporting that a company storefront website is not accessible by
internal domain users. However, external users are accessing the website without issue. Which of the following is the
MOST likely reason for this behavior?
A. The FQDN is incorrect.
B. The DNS server is corrupted.
C. The time synchronization server is corrupted.
D. The certificate is expired.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The security team has determined that the current incident response resources cannot meet management\\’s objective
to secure a forensic image for all serious security incidents within 24 hours. Which of the following compensating
controls can be used to help meet management\\’s expectations?
A. Separation of duties
B. Scheduled reviews
C. Dual control
D. Outsourcing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A company that is hiring a penetration tester wants to exclude social engineering from the list of authorized activities.
Which of the following documents should include these details?
A. Acceptable use policy
B. Service level agreement
C. Rules of engagement
D. Memorandum of understanding
E. Master service agreement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A threat intelligence feed has posted an alert stating there is a critical vulnerability in the kernel. Unfortunately, the
company\\’s asset inventory is not current. Which of the following techniques would a cybersecurity analyst perform to
find all affected servers within an organization?
A. A manual log review from data sent to syslog
B. An OS fingerprinting scan across all hosts
C. A packet capture of data traversing the server network
D. A service discovery scan on the network
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
During a routine network scan, a security administrator discovered an unidentified service running on a new embedded
and unmanaged HVAC controller, which is used to monitor the company\\’s datacenter:

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The enterprise monitoring service requires SNMP and SNMPTRAP connectivity to operate. Which of the following
should the security administrator implement to harden the system?
A. Patch and restart the unknown service.
B. Segment and firewall the controller\\’s network.
C. Disable the unidentified service on the controller.
D. Implement SNMPv3 to secure communication.
E. Disable TCP/UDP ports 161 through 163.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An analyst is observing unusual network traffic from a workstation. The workstation is communicating with a known
malicious site over an encrypted tunnel. A full antivirus scan with an updated antivirus signature file does not show any
sign of infection. Which of the following has occurred on the workstation?
A. Zero-day attack
B. Known malware attack
C. Session hijack
D. Cookie stealing
Correct Answer: A

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AWS Certified Advanced Networking – Specialty (ANS-C00) exam video

Vendor: Amazon
Certifications: AWS Certified Specialty
Exam Code: ANS-C00

AWS Certified Alexa Skill Builder – Specialty (AXS-C01) exam video

Vendor: Amazon
Certifications: AWS Certified Specialty
Exam Code: AXS-C01

AWS Certified Data Analytics – Specialty (DAS-C01) exam video

Vendor: Amazon
Certifications: AWS Certified Specialty
Exam Code: DAS-C01

Share AWS Certified Specialty (ANS-C00, AXS-C01, DAS-C01) exam practice questions for free

AWS Certified Specialty ANS-C00 Practice Test (part)

QUESTION 1
For _______ distributions, CloudFront does not cache cookies in edge caches.
A. AMI
B. Web
C. RTMP
D. Web and RTMP
Correct Answer: C
For RTMP distributions, when Amazon CloudFront requests an object from the origin server, it removes any cookies
before forwarding the request to your origin. If your origin returns any cookies along with the object, CloudFront
removes
them before returning the object to the viewer.
For RTMP distributions, CloudFront does not cache cookies in edge caches.
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 2
Your company is expanding its cloud infrastructure and moving many of its flat files and static assets to S3. You
currently use a VPN to access your compute infrastructure, but you require more reliability for your static files as you are
offloading all of your important data to AWS. What is your best course of action while keeping costs low?
A. Create a Direct Connect connection using a Private VIF to access both compute and S3 resources.
B. Create an S3 endpoint and create a route to the endpoint prefix-list for your VPN to allow access to your S3
resources.
C. Create two Direct Connect connections. Each connected to a Private VIF to ensure maximum resiliency.
D. Create a Direct Connect connection using a Public VIF and route your VPN over the DX connection to your VPN
endpoint.
Correct Answer: D
An S3 endpoint cannot be used with a VPN. A Private VIF cannot access S3 resources. A Public VIF with a VPN will
ensure security for your compute resources and access to your S3 resources. Two DX connections are very expensive
and a Private VIF still won\\’t allow access to your S3 resources.

QUESTION 3
Which service would you use to see who changed your infrastructure?
A. Config
B. CloudTrail
C. Flow Logs
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
You have just deployed a website that utilizes CloudFront, ELB, and S3 to serve content. When users access your site,
they are seeing broken image links. What is most likely the problem?
A. There is no record in Route 53 pointing cdn.yourdomain.com to the CloudFront ALIAS.
B. You need to create Origin Access Identity for CloudFront and add it to your bucket policy.
C. The images in S3 are saved as .png instead of .jpg.
D. There is no rule in your bucket policy allowing public access.
Correct Answer: B
You must have an OAI if the bucket policy does not allow public access, which is bad practice.


QUESTION 5
Your company has decided to use AWS WorkSpaces for its hosted desktop solution. Your company has an existing AD
of about 57,000 users, and you want to minimize authentication traffic from AWS to your datacenter. Your company has
a lot of personnel changes, and it is crucial that these changes are reflected reliably.
What two steps should you take? (Choose two.)
A. Deploy Hosted AD in AWS.
B. Deploy an AD Connector in AWS.
C. Create a DX connection between the datacenter and AWS.
D. Create a VPN between the datacenter AWS.
Correct Answer: AC
A VPN is not reliable enough, and an AD connector will cause too much authentication traffic.

QUESTION 6
You are your company\\’s AWS cloud architect. You have created a VPC topology that consists of 3 VPCs. You have a
centralized VPC (VPC-Shared) that provides shared services to the remaining 2 departmental dedicated VPCs (VPCDept1 and VPC-Dept2). The centralized VPC is VPC peered to both of the departmental VPCs, that is a VPC peering
connection exists between VPC-Shared and VPC-Dept1, and a VPC peering connection exists between VPC-Shared
and VPCDept2.
Select the correct option from the list below.
A. Network traffic is possible between VPC-Shared instances and VPC-Dept1 and VPC-Dept2 instances as long as the
appropriate routes and security groups are in place, but only for communication that is initiated from VPC1-Shared
instances as the default peering bi-directional communication flag have been disabled.
B. Instances within VPC-Dept1 can communicate directly with instances in VPC-Shared, as long as the appropriate
routes and security groups are in place, and vice versa regardless of who initiates communication
C. All network communication remains blocked between all VPCs until the respective peering bi-directional
communication flags are set to the appropriate setting that allows traffic to flow.
D. Network traffic is possible between VPC-Shared instances and VPC-Dept1 and VPC-Dept2 instances as long as the
appropriate routes and security groups are in place, but only for communication that is initiated from VPC1-Shared
instances as the default peering bi-directional communication flag has been enabled.
Correct Answer: B
Answers A, C, and D are incorrect answers as they reference a non-existing setting – there is no such thing as a “default
peering bi-directional communication flag”.
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 7
Your company needs to directly update an S3 bucket that serves as a CloudFront origin with the most reliability
possible. Your company also has a set of private EC2 servers that it needs to access with the same reliability. Which
combination will provide the best solution?
A. A Virtual Gateway and a Public VIF
B. A Private VIF is all you need to access all AWS resources.
C. A Hosted VIF and a Private VIF
D. A Public VIF and a Private VIF
Correct Answer: D
The Public VIF will allow access to the S3 bucket, and the Private VIF will allow access to the EC2 instances.

QUESTION 8
What is the DNS server address for a VPC (10.111.0.0/16) with a subnet of 10.111.4.0/24?
A. 10.111.0.2
B. 10.111.4.2
C. 10.111.1.2
D. 10.111.4.1
Correct Answer: A
The DNS server is the base VPC CIDR + 2.

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AWS Certified Specialty AXS-C01 Practice Test (part)

QUESTION 1
The information below details a portion of an interaction model in JSON: What is wrong with this interaction model?

AXS-C01 exam questions-q1

A. The intent naming convention is not valid in the situation.
B. The two intents do not have unique slots.
C. The two intents do not have unique utterances.
D. The JSON is not properly constructed and would cause an error.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
What are the prerequisites for implementing account linking for Amazon Alexa smart home skills?
A. OAuth 2.0 with either implicit grant flow or authorization code grant flow
B. OAuth 2.0 with authorization code grant flow
C. OpenID Connect wit JSON.Web Token (JWT)
D. OAuth 1.0/2.0 with implicit grant flow
Correct Answer: B
Reference: click here  

QUESTION 3
An Alexa Skill Builder is developing a skill that enables users to purchase train tickets. The Builder wants to give users
the ability to modify the departure time if they are misunderstood, before the skill proceeds to purchase the tickets.
Which option should be used to implement this functionality within the session?
A. Implement AMAZON.FallbackIntent so the user can stop the execution when they have been misunderstood.
B. Implement AMAZON.StopIntent so the user can stop the execution and implement reprompt with a new invocation of
the skill.
C. Implement AMAZON.CancelIntent so the user can cancel the order, then set shouldEndSession to false, and prompt
the user for the next action.
D. Implement the welcome message, providing clear instructions to the user describing how to format an order.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
An Alexa Skill Builder built a skill with the following interaction model: Which utterance would invoke HelloIntent?

AXS-C01 exam questions-q4

A. “Alexa, use my first skill to say hello.”
B. “Alexa, ask my first skill to say hello to John.”
C. “Alexa, open my first skill.”
D. “Alexa, say hello to my first skill.”
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An Alexa Skill Builder published a skill and now wants to update it.
Which of the following changes will make it necessary to have the skill re-certified? (Choose two.)
A. Adding a new intent in the interaction model
B. Changing the text of a skill response
C. Adding a sentence to the skill description
D. Changing the URL of the image on a skill card
E. Updating the backend to point to a new database
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 6
An Alexa Skill Builder is creating a skill that requires the user to authenticate by speaking a PIN before an order status
can be retrieved. According to best practices, how should the PIN value be collected?
A. Use AMAZON.SearchQuery
B. Use AMAZON.FOUR_DIGIT_NUMBER
C. Use multiple slots of type AMAZON.NUMBER
D. Use a custom slot with zero to nine as values.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
An Alexa Builder is working on a skill for music streaming. When a user says, “Alexa, stop” the skill needs to know
where the user was in the song, so that when returning to the skill in a new session, the song can pick up where it left
off. Which section of the following JSON contains the data indicating where the song left off?

AXS-C01 exam questions-q7

A. session.attributes
B. Context.AudioPlayer
C. session.user
D. context.System.device.supportedInterfaces.AudioPlayer
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
An Alexa Skill Builder has published a skill to the Alexa Skills Store, but soon after realizes that Amazon Alexa is saying
an incorrect word in one of the responses. What is the recommended method for the Builder to correct this issue?
A. Correct the response in a new endpoint, and after updating the In Development version of the skill, redeploy it.
B. Access the In Development version of the skill, alter the intent that was causing the incorrect word, then resubmit the
skill for certification.
C. Edit the response in a new endpoint, and after updating the In Development version of the skill, resubmit it for
certification.
D. Correct the response in the existing endpoint of the Live version of the skill, then redeploy it.
Correct Answer: A

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AWS Certified Specialty DAS-C01 Practice Test (part)

QUESTION 1
A media analytics company consumes a stream of social media posts. The posts are sent to an Amazon Kinesis data
stream partitioned on user_id. An AWS Lambda function retrieves the records and validates the content before loading
the posts into an Amazon Elasticsearch cluster. The validation process needs to receive the posts for a given user in the
order they were received. A data analyst has noticed that, during peak hours, the social media platform posts take more
than an hour to appear in the Elasticsearch cluster.
What should the data analyst do reduce this latency?
A. Migrate the validation process to Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose.
B. Migrate the Lambda consumers from standard data stream iterators to an HTTP/2 stream consumer.
C. Increase the number of shards in the stream.
D. Configure multiple Lambda functions to process the stream.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
A company that produces network devices has millions of users. Data is collected from the devices on an hourly basis
and stored in an Amazon S3 data lake.
The company runs analyses on the last 24 hours of data flow logs for abnormality detection and to troubleshoot and
resolve user issues. The company also analyzes historical logs dating back 2 years to discover patterns and look for
improvement opportunities.
The data flow logs contain many metrics, such as date, timestamp, source IP, and target IP. There are about 10 billion
events every day.
How should this data be stored for optimal performance?
A. In Apache ORC partitioned by date and sorted by source IP
B. In compressed .csv partitioned by date and sorted by source IP
C. In Apache Parquet partitioned by source IP and sorted by date
D. In compressed nested JSON partitioned by source IP and sorted by date
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
A company wants to improve the data load time of a sales data dashboard. Data has been collected as .csv files and
stored within an Amazon S3 bucket that is partitioned by date. The data is then loaded to an Amazon Redshift data
warehouse for frequent analysis. The data volume is up to 500 GB per day.
Which solution will improve data loading performance?
A. Compress .csv files and use an INSERT statement to ingest data into Amazon Redshift.
B. Split large .csv files, then use a COPY command to load data into Amazon Redshift.
C. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to ingest data into Amazon Redshift.
D. Load the .csv files in an unsorted key order and vacuum the table in Amazon Redshift.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: click here 

QUESTION 4
A media company wants to perform machine learning and analytics on the data residing in its Amazon S3 data lake.
There are two data transformation requirements that will enable the consumers within the company to create reports:
1.
Daily transformations of 300 GB of data with different file formats landing in Amazon S3 at a scheduled time.
2.
One-time transformations of terabytes of archived data residing in the S3 data lake.
Which combination of solutions cost-effectively meets the company\\’s requirements for transforming the data? (Choose
three.)
A. For daily incoming data, use AWS Glue crawlers to scan and identify the schema.
B. For daily incoming data, use Amazon Athena to scan and identify the schema.
C. For daily incoming data, use Amazon Redshift to perform transformations.
D. For daily incoming data, use AWS Glue workflows with AWS Glue jobs to perform transformations.
E. For archived data, use Amazon EMR to perform data transformations.
F. For archived data, use Amazon SageMaker to perform data transformations.
Correct Answer: BCD


QUESTION 5
A global company has different sub-organizations, and each sub-organization sells its products and services in various
countries. The company\\’s senior leadership wants to quickly identify which sub-organization is the strongest performer
in each country. All sales data is stored in Amazon S3 in Parquet format.
Which approach can provide the visuals that senior leadership requested with the least amount of effort?
A. Use Amazon QuickSight with Amazon Athena as the data source. Use heat maps as the visual type.
B. Use Amazon QuickSight with Amazon S3 as the data source. Use heat maps as the visual type.
C. Use Amazon QuickSight with Amazon Athena as the data source. Use pivot tables as the visual type.
D. Use Amazon QuickSight with Amazon S3 as the data source. Use pivot tables as the visual type.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A marketing company is using Amazon EMR clusters for its workloads. The company manually installs third-party
libraries on the clusters by logging in to the master nodes. A data analyst needs to create an automated solution to
replace the manual process.
Which options can fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Place the required installation scripts in Amazon S3 and execute them using custom bootstrap actions.
B. Place the required installation scripts in Amazon S3 and execute them through Apache Spark in Amazon EMR.
C. Install the required third-party libraries in the existing EMR master node. Create an AMI out of that master node and
use that custom AMI to re-create the EMR cluster.
D. Use an Amazon DynamoDB table to store the list of required applications. Trigger an AWS Lambda function with
DynamoDB Streams to install the software.
E. Launch an Amazon EC2 instance with Amazon Linux and install the required third-party libraries on the instance.
Create an AMI and use that AMI to create the EMR cluster.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 7
A company is building a data lake and needs to ingest data from a relational database that has time-series data. The
company wants to use managed services to accomplish this. The process needs to be scheduled daily and bring
incremental data only from the source into Amazon S3.
What is the MOST cost-effective approach to meet these requirements?
A. Use AWS Glue to connect to the data source using JDBC Drivers. Ingest incremental records only using job
bookmarks.
B. Use AWS Glue to connect to the data source using JDBC Drivers. Store the last updated key in an Amazon
DynamoDB table and ingest the data using the updated key as a filter.
C. Use AWS Glue to connect to the data source using JDBC Drivers and ingest the entire dataset. Use appropriate
Apache Spark libraries to compare the dataset, and find the delta.
D. Use AWS Glue to connect to the data source using JDBC Drivers and ingest the full data. Use AWS DataSync to
ensure the delta only is written into Amazon S3.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A hospital uses wearable medical sensor devices to collect data from patients. The hospital is architecting a near-realtime solution that can ingest the data securely at scale. The solution should also be able to remove the patient\\’s
protected health information (PHI) from the streaming data and store the data in durable storage.
Which solution meets these requirements with the least operational overhead?
A. Ingest the data using Amazon Kinesis Data Streams, which invokes an AWS Lambda function using Kinesis Client
Library (KCL) to remove all PHI. Write the data in Amazon S3.
B. Ingest the data using Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to write the data to Amazon S3. Have Amazon S3 trigger an
AWS Lambda function that parses the sensor data to remove all PHI in Amazon S3.
C. Ingest the data using Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to write the data to Amazon S3. Have the data stream launch an
AWS Lambda function that parses the sensor data and removes all PHI in Amazon S3.
D. Ingest the data using Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to write the data to Amazon S3. Implement a transformation
AWS Lambda function that parses the sensor data to remove all PHI.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: click here 
 

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