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cs0-001 study guide

[2021.7] Share CompTIA CS0-001 practice test questions online preparation material free

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Amazing CompTIA CySA+ CS0-001 questions answers (Free part)

CS0-001 questions

QUESTION 1
A security analyst is preparing for the company\\’s upcoming audit. Upon review of the company\\’s latest vulnerability
scan, the security analyst finds the following open issues: Which of the following vulnerabilities should be prioritized for
remediation FIRST?

cs0-001 exam questions-q1

A. ICMP timestamp request remote date disclosure
B. Anonymous FTP enabled
C. Unsupported web server detection
D. Microsoft Windows SMB service enumeration via \srvsvc
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
A nuclear facility manager determined the need to monitor utilization of water within the facility. A startup company just
announced a state-of-the-art solution to address the need for integrating the business and ICS network. The solution
requires a very small agent to be installed on the ICS equipment. Which of the following is the MOST important security
control for the manager to invest in to protect the facility?
A. Run a penetration test on the installed agent.
B. Require that the solution provider make the agent source code available for analysis.
C. Require through guides for administrator and users.
D. Install the agent for a week on a test system and monitor the activities.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following systems or services is MOST likely to exhibit issues stemming from the Heartbleed vulnerability
(Choose two.)
A. SSH daemons
B. Web servers
C. Modbus devices
D. TLS VPN services
E. IPSec VPN concentrators
F. SMB service
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 4
Organizational policies require vulnerability remediation on severity 7 or greater within one week. Anything with a
severity less than 7 must be remediated within 30 days. The organization also requires security teams to investigate the
details of a vulnerability before performing any remediation. If the investigation determines the finding is a false positive,
no remediation is performed and the vulnerability scanner configuration is updates to omit the false positive from future
scans:
The organization has three Apache web servers:

cs0-001 exam questions-q4

Which of the following actions should the security team perform?
A. Ignore the false positive on 192.168.1.22
B. Remediate 192.168.1.20 within 30 days
C. Remediate 192.168.1.22 within 30 days
D. Investigate the false negative on 192.168.1.20
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
After reviewing the following packet, a cybersecurity analyst has discovered an unauthorized service is running on a
company\\’s computer.

cs0-001 exam questions-q5

Which of the following ACLs, if implemented, will prevent further access ONLY to the unauthorized service and will not
impact other services?
A. DENY TCP ANY HOST 10.38.219.20 EQ 3389
B. DENY IP HOST 10.38.219.20 ANY EQ 25
C. DENY IP HOST192.168.1.10 HOST 10.38.219.20 EQ 3389
D. DENY TCP ANY HOST 192.168.1.10 EQ 25
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A centralized tool for organizing security events and managing their response and resolution is known as:
A. SIEM
B. HIPS
C. Syslog
D. Wireshark
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
An analyst suspects a large database that contains customer information and credit card data was exfiltrated to a known
hacker group in a foreign country. Which of the following incident response steps should the analyst take FIRST?
A. Immediately notify law enforcement, as they may be able to help track down the hacker group before customer
information is disseminated.
B. Draft and publish a notice on the company\\’s website about the incident, as PCI regulations require immediate
disclosure in the case of a breach of PII or card data.
C. Isolate the server, restore the database to a time before the vulnerability occurred, and ensure the database is
encrypted.
D. Document and verify all evidence and immediately notify the company\\’s Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to
better understand the next steps.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A security analyst received several service tickets reporting that a company storefront website is not accessible by
internal domain users. However, external users are accessing the website without issue. Which of the following is the
MOST likely reason for this behavior?
A. The FQDN is incorrect.
B. The DNS server is corrupted.
C. The time synchronization server is corrupted.
D. The certificate is expired.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The security team has determined that the current incident response resources cannot meet management\\’s objective
to secure a forensic image for all serious security incidents within 24 hours. Which of the following compensating
controls can be used to help meet management\\’s expectations?
A. Separation of duties
B. Scheduled reviews
C. Dual control
D. Outsourcing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A company that is hiring a penetration tester wants to exclude social engineering from the list of authorized activities.
Which of the following documents should include these details?
A. Acceptable use policy
B. Service level agreement
C. Rules of engagement
D. Memorandum of understanding
E. Master service agreement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A threat intelligence feed has posted an alert stating there is a critical vulnerability in the kernel. Unfortunately, the
company\\’s asset inventory is not current. Which of the following techniques would a cybersecurity analyst perform to
find all affected servers within an organization?
A. A manual log review from data sent to syslog
B. An OS fingerprinting scan across all hosts
C. A packet capture of data traversing the server network
D. A service discovery scan on the network
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
During a routine network scan, a security administrator discovered an unidentified service running on a new embedded
and unmanaged HVAC controller, which is used to monitor the company\\’s datacenter:

cs0-001 exam questions-q12

The enterprise monitoring service requires SNMP and SNMPTRAP connectivity to operate. Which of the following
should the security administrator implement to harden the system?
A. Patch and restart the unknown service.
B. Segment and firewall the controller\\’s network.
C. Disable the unidentified service on the controller.
D. Implement SNMPv3 to secure communication.
E. Disable TCP/UDP ports 161 through 163.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An analyst is observing unusual network traffic from a workstation. The workstation is communicating with a known
malicious site over an encrypted tunnel. A full antivirus scan with an updated antivirus signature file does not show any
sign of infection. Which of the following has occurred on the workstation?
A. Zero-day attack
B. Known malware attack
C. Session hijack
D. Cookie stealing
Correct Answer: A

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AWS Certified Advanced Networking – Specialty (ANS-C00) exam video

Vendor: Amazon
Certifications: AWS Certified Specialty
Exam Code: ANS-C00

AWS Certified Alexa Skill Builder – Specialty (AXS-C01) exam video

Vendor: Amazon
Certifications: AWS Certified Specialty
Exam Code: AXS-C01

AWS Certified Data Analytics – Specialty (DAS-C01) exam video

Vendor: Amazon
Certifications: AWS Certified Specialty
Exam Code: DAS-C01

Share AWS Certified Specialty (ANS-C00, AXS-C01, DAS-C01) exam practice questions for free

AWS Certified Specialty ANS-C00 Practice Test (part)

QUESTION 1
For _______ distributions, CloudFront does not cache cookies in edge caches.
A. AMI
B. Web
C. RTMP
D. Web and RTMP
Correct Answer: C
For RTMP distributions, when Amazon CloudFront requests an object from the origin server, it removes any cookies
before forwarding the request to your origin. If your origin returns any cookies along with the object, CloudFront
removes
them before returning the object to the viewer.
For RTMP distributions, CloudFront does not cache cookies in edge caches.
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 2
Your company is expanding its cloud infrastructure and moving many of its flat files and static assets to S3. You
currently use a VPN to access your compute infrastructure, but you require more reliability for your static files as you are
offloading all of your important data to AWS. What is your best course of action while keeping costs low?
A. Create a Direct Connect connection using a Private VIF to access both compute and S3 resources.
B. Create an S3 endpoint and create a route to the endpoint prefix-list for your VPN to allow access to your S3
resources.
C. Create two Direct Connect connections. Each connected to a Private VIF to ensure maximum resiliency.
D. Create a Direct Connect connection using a Public VIF and route your VPN over the DX connection to your VPN
endpoint.
Correct Answer: D
An S3 endpoint cannot be used with a VPN. A Private VIF cannot access S3 resources. A Public VIF with a VPN will
ensure security for your compute resources and access to your S3 resources. Two DX connections are very expensive
and a Private VIF still won\\’t allow access to your S3 resources.

QUESTION 3
Which service would you use to see who changed your infrastructure?
A. Config
B. CloudTrail
C. Flow Logs
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
You have just deployed a website that utilizes CloudFront, ELB, and S3 to serve content. When users access your site,
they are seeing broken image links. What is most likely the problem?
A. There is no record in Route 53 pointing cdn.yourdomain.com to the CloudFront ALIAS.
B. You need to create Origin Access Identity for CloudFront and add it to your bucket policy.
C. The images in S3 are saved as .png instead of .jpg.
D. There is no rule in your bucket policy allowing public access.
Correct Answer: B
You must have an OAI if the bucket policy does not allow public access, which is bad practice.


QUESTION 5
Your company has decided to use AWS WorkSpaces for its hosted desktop solution. Your company has an existing AD
of about 57,000 users, and you want to minimize authentication traffic from AWS to your datacenter. Your company has
a lot of personnel changes, and it is crucial that these changes are reflected reliably.
What two steps should you take? (Choose two.)
A. Deploy Hosted AD in AWS.
B. Deploy an AD Connector in AWS.
C. Create a DX connection between the datacenter and AWS.
D. Create a VPN between the datacenter AWS.
Correct Answer: AC
A VPN is not reliable enough, and an AD connector will cause too much authentication traffic.

QUESTION 6
You are your company\\’s AWS cloud architect. You have created a VPC topology that consists of 3 VPCs. You have a
centralized VPC (VPC-Shared) that provides shared services to the remaining 2 departmental dedicated VPCs (VPCDept1 and VPC-Dept2). The centralized VPC is VPC peered to both of the departmental VPCs, that is a VPC peering
connection exists between VPC-Shared and VPC-Dept1, and a VPC peering connection exists between VPC-Shared
and VPCDept2.
Select the correct option from the list below.
A. Network traffic is possible between VPC-Shared instances and VPC-Dept1 and VPC-Dept2 instances as long as the
appropriate routes and security groups are in place, but only for communication that is initiated from VPC1-Shared
instances as the default peering bi-directional communication flag have been disabled.
B. Instances within VPC-Dept1 can communicate directly with instances in VPC-Shared, as long as the appropriate
routes and security groups are in place, and vice versa regardless of who initiates communication
C. All network communication remains blocked between all VPCs until the respective peering bi-directional
communication flags are set to the appropriate setting that allows traffic to flow.
D. Network traffic is possible between VPC-Shared instances and VPC-Dept1 and VPC-Dept2 instances as long as the
appropriate routes and security groups are in place, but only for communication that is initiated from VPC1-Shared
instances as the default peering bi-directional communication flag has been enabled.
Correct Answer: B
Answers A, C, and D are incorrect answers as they reference a non-existing setting – there is no such thing as a “default
peering bi-directional communication flag”.
Reference: click here 


QUESTION 7
Your company needs to directly update an S3 bucket that serves as a CloudFront origin with the most reliability
possible. Your company also has a set of private EC2 servers that it needs to access with the same reliability. Which
combination will provide the best solution?
A. A Virtual Gateway and a Public VIF
B. A Private VIF is all you need to access all AWS resources.
C. A Hosted VIF and a Private VIF
D. A Public VIF and a Private VIF
Correct Answer: D
The Public VIF will allow access to the S3 bucket, and the Private VIF will allow access to the EC2 instances.

QUESTION 8
What is the DNS server address for a VPC (10.111.0.0/16) with a subnet of 10.111.4.0/24?
A. 10.111.0.2
B. 10.111.4.2
C. 10.111.1.2
D. 10.111.4.1
Correct Answer: A
The DNS server is the base VPC CIDR + 2.

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AWS Certified Specialty AXS-C01 Practice Test (part)

QUESTION 1
The information below details a portion of an interaction model in JSON: What is wrong with this interaction model?

AXS-C01 exam questions-q1

A. The intent naming convention is not valid in the situation.
B. The two intents do not have unique slots.
C. The two intents do not have unique utterances.
D. The JSON is not properly constructed and would cause an error.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
What are the prerequisites for implementing account linking for Amazon Alexa smart home skills?
A. OAuth 2.0 with either implicit grant flow or authorization code grant flow
B. OAuth 2.0 with authorization code grant flow
C. OpenID Connect wit JSON.Web Token (JWT)
D. OAuth 1.0/2.0 with implicit grant flow
Correct Answer: B
Reference: click here  

QUESTION 3
An Alexa Skill Builder is developing a skill that enables users to purchase train tickets. The Builder wants to give users
the ability to modify the departure time if they are misunderstood, before the skill proceeds to purchase the tickets.
Which option should be used to implement this functionality within the session?
A. Implement AMAZON.FallbackIntent so the user can stop the execution when they have been misunderstood.
B. Implement AMAZON.StopIntent so the user can stop the execution and implement reprompt with a new invocation of
the skill.
C. Implement AMAZON.CancelIntent so the user can cancel the order, then set shouldEndSession to false, and prompt
the user for the next action.
D. Implement the welcome message, providing clear instructions to the user describing how to format an order.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
An Alexa Skill Builder built a skill with the following interaction model: Which utterance would invoke HelloIntent?

AXS-C01 exam questions-q4

A. “Alexa, use my first skill to say hello.”
B. “Alexa, ask my first skill to say hello to John.”
C. “Alexa, open my first skill.”
D. “Alexa, say hello to my first skill.”
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An Alexa Skill Builder published a skill and now wants to update it.
Which of the following changes will make it necessary to have the skill re-certified? (Choose two.)
A. Adding a new intent in the interaction model
B. Changing the text of a skill response
C. Adding a sentence to the skill description
D. Changing the URL of the image on a skill card
E. Updating the backend to point to a new database
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 6
An Alexa Skill Builder is creating a skill that requires the user to authenticate by speaking a PIN before an order status
can be retrieved. According to best practices, how should the PIN value be collected?
A. Use AMAZON.SearchQuery
B. Use AMAZON.FOUR_DIGIT_NUMBER
C. Use multiple slots of type AMAZON.NUMBER
D. Use a custom slot with zero to nine as values.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
An Alexa Builder is working on a skill for music streaming. When a user says, “Alexa, stop” the skill needs to know
where the user was in the song, so that when returning to the skill in a new session, the song can pick up where it left
off. Which section of the following JSON contains the data indicating where the song left off?

AXS-C01 exam questions-q7

A. session.attributes
B. Context.AudioPlayer
C. session.user
D. context.System.device.supportedInterfaces.AudioPlayer
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 8
An Alexa Skill Builder has published a skill to the Alexa Skills Store, but soon after realizes that Amazon Alexa is saying
an incorrect word in one of the responses. What is the recommended method for the Builder to correct this issue?
A. Correct the response in a new endpoint, and after updating the In Development version of the skill, redeploy it.
B. Access the In Development version of the skill, alter the intent that was causing the incorrect word, then resubmit the
skill for certification.
C. Edit the response in a new endpoint, and after updating the In Development version of the skill, resubmit it for
certification.
D. Correct the response in the existing endpoint of the Live version of the skill, then redeploy it.
Correct Answer: A

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AWS Certified Specialty DAS-C01 Practice Test (part)

QUESTION 1
A media analytics company consumes a stream of social media posts. The posts are sent to an Amazon Kinesis data
stream partitioned on user_id. An AWS Lambda function retrieves the records and validates the content before loading
the posts into an Amazon Elasticsearch cluster. The validation process needs to receive the posts for a given user in the
order they were received. A data analyst has noticed that, during peak hours, the social media platform posts take more
than an hour to appear in the Elasticsearch cluster.
What should the data analyst do reduce this latency?
A. Migrate the validation process to Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose.
B. Migrate the Lambda consumers from standard data stream iterators to an HTTP/2 stream consumer.
C. Increase the number of shards in the stream.
D. Configure multiple Lambda functions to process the stream.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
A company that produces network devices has millions of users. Data is collected from the devices on an hourly basis
and stored in an Amazon S3 data lake.
The company runs analyses on the last 24 hours of data flow logs for abnormality detection and to troubleshoot and
resolve user issues. The company also analyzes historical logs dating back 2 years to discover patterns and look for
improvement opportunities.
The data flow logs contain many metrics, such as date, timestamp, source IP, and target IP. There are about 10 billion
events every day.
How should this data be stored for optimal performance?
A. In Apache ORC partitioned by date and sorted by source IP
B. In compressed .csv partitioned by date and sorted by source IP
C. In Apache Parquet partitioned by source IP and sorted by date
D. In compressed nested JSON partitioned by source IP and sorted by date
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
A company wants to improve the data load time of a sales data dashboard. Data has been collected as .csv files and
stored within an Amazon S3 bucket that is partitioned by date. The data is then loaded to an Amazon Redshift data
warehouse for frequent analysis. The data volume is up to 500 GB per day.
Which solution will improve data loading performance?
A. Compress .csv files and use an INSERT statement to ingest data into Amazon Redshift.
B. Split large .csv files, then use a COPY command to load data into Amazon Redshift.
C. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to ingest data into Amazon Redshift.
D. Load the .csv files in an unsorted key order and vacuum the table in Amazon Redshift.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: click here 

QUESTION 4
A media company wants to perform machine learning and analytics on the data residing in its Amazon S3 data lake.
There are two data transformation requirements that will enable the consumers within the company to create reports:
1.
Daily transformations of 300 GB of data with different file formats landing in Amazon S3 at a scheduled time.
2.
One-time transformations of terabytes of archived data residing in the S3 data lake.
Which combination of solutions cost-effectively meets the company\\’s requirements for transforming the data? (Choose
three.)
A. For daily incoming data, use AWS Glue crawlers to scan and identify the schema.
B. For daily incoming data, use Amazon Athena to scan and identify the schema.
C. For daily incoming data, use Amazon Redshift to perform transformations.
D. For daily incoming data, use AWS Glue workflows with AWS Glue jobs to perform transformations.
E. For archived data, use Amazon EMR to perform data transformations.
F. For archived data, use Amazon SageMaker to perform data transformations.
Correct Answer: BCD


QUESTION 5
A global company has different sub-organizations, and each sub-organization sells its products and services in various
countries. The company\\’s senior leadership wants to quickly identify which sub-organization is the strongest performer
in each country. All sales data is stored in Amazon S3 in Parquet format.
Which approach can provide the visuals that senior leadership requested with the least amount of effort?
A. Use Amazon QuickSight with Amazon Athena as the data source. Use heat maps as the visual type.
B. Use Amazon QuickSight with Amazon S3 as the data source. Use heat maps as the visual type.
C. Use Amazon QuickSight with Amazon Athena as the data source. Use pivot tables as the visual type.
D. Use Amazon QuickSight with Amazon S3 as the data source. Use pivot tables as the visual type.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A marketing company is using Amazon EMR clusters for its workloads. The company manually installs third-party
libraries on the clusters by logging in to the master nodes. A data analyst needs to create an automated solution to
replace the manual process.
Which options can fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)
A. Place the required installation scripts in Amazon S3 and execute them using custom bootstrap actions.
B. Place the required installation scripts in Amazon S3 and execute them through Apache Spark in Amazon EMR.
C. Install the required third-party libraries in the existing EMR master node. Create an AMI out of that master node and
use that custom AMI to re-create the EMR cluster.
D. Use an Amazon DynamoDB table to store the list of required applications. Trigger an AWS Lambda function with
DynamoDB Streams to install the software.
E. Launch an Amazon EC2 instance with Amazon Linux and install the required third-party libraries on the instance.
Create an AMI and use that AMI to create the EMR cluster.
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 7
A company is building a data lake and needs to ingest data from a relational database that has time-series data. The
company wants to use managed services to accomplish this. The process needs to be scheduled daily and bring
incremental data only from the source into Amazon S3.
What is the MOST cost-effective approach to meet these requirements?
A. Use AWS Glue to connect to the data source using JDBC Drivers. Ingest incremental records only using job
bookmarks.
B. Use AWS Glue to connect to the data source using JDBC Drivers. Store the last updated key in an Amazon
DynamoDB table and ingest the data using the updated key as a filter.
C. Use AWS Glue to connect to the data source using JDBC Drivers and ingest the entire dataset. Use appropriate
Apache Spark libraries to compare the dataset, and find the delta.
D. Use AWS Glue to connect to the data source using JDBC Drivers and ingest the full data. Use AWS DataSync to
ensure the delta only is written into Amazon S3.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A hospital uses wearable medical sensor devices to collect data from patients. The hospital is architecting a near-realtime solution that can ingest the data securely at scale. The solution should also be able to remove the patient\\’s
protected health information (PHI) from the streaming data and store the data in durable storage.
Which solution meets these requirements with the least operational overhead?
A. Ingest the data using Amazon Kinesis Data Streams, which invokes an AWS Lambda function using Kinesis Client
Library (KCL) to remove all PHI. Write the data in Amazon S3.
B. Ingest the data using Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to write the data to Amazon S3. Have Amazon S3 trigger an
AWS Lambda function that parses the sensor data to remove all PHI in Amazon S3.
C. Ingest the data using Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to write the data to Amazon S3. Have the data stream launch an
AWS Lambda function that parses the sensor data and removes all PHI in Amazon S3.
D. Ingest the data using Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to write the data to Amazon S3. Implement a transformation
AWS Lambda function that parses the sensor data to remove all PHI.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: click here 
 

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Citrix 1Y0-403 Practice Test With 1Y0-403 Questions

QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment.
The table in the exhibit lists details about the requirements of the current user groups and their Virtual Delivery Agent
(VDA) machine workloads. Click the Exhibit button to view the table.

Pmtrainingprep 1y0-403 exam questions-q1

The architect should scale the hardware used to host the virtual machines (VMs) for User Group 1 to ________ cores.
(Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. 32
B. 24
C. 96
D. 64
E. 16
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 2
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment.
The table in the exhibit lists details about the requirements of the current user groups and their Virtual Delivery Agent
(VDA) machine workloads.
Click the Exhibit button to view the table.

Pmtrainingprep 1y0-403 exam questions-q2

The architect should scale the hardware used to host the virtual machines (VMs) for User Group 1 to __________
cores. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 24
E. 16
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A Citrix Architect needs to enable the security of the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) by evaluating the `EnableVdaSSL.ps1 -Enable\\’ script.
Which supported SSL protocol version is least secure when using the default settings of the script?
A. TLS 1.0
B. SSL 3.0
C. TLS 1.2
D. TLS 1.1
E. SSL 1.0
F. SSL 2.0
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/xenapp-and-xendesktop/7-15-ltsr/secure/tls.html

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment for a company with 2
branch offices connected over a WAN link. Each location will maintain its own Citrix Site and be configured for disaster
recovery (DR) to allow users to failover if 1 Site has an outage. Management wants to implement a strong profile
solution to manage user profiles. Each user maintains a profile that consists of user documents, application settings,
and other personalization settings that must be available to them at all times.
Which step should the architect perform to ensure that profile requirements are met?
A. Implement Citrix Profile Management for all users with Windows Folder Redirection configured, and Microsoft
Distributed File System Replication (DFSR) active-active profile replication configured over the WAN connection.
B. Implement Citrix Profile Management for all users with Microsoft Distributed File System Replication (DFSR) active-passive profile replication configured over the WAN connection.
C. Implement Citrix Profile Management for all users with Microsoft Distributed File System Replication (DFSR) active-active profile replication configured over the WAN connection.
D. Implement Citrix Profile Management for all users with Active write back enabled and Microsoft Distributed File
System Replication (DFSR) active-active profile replication configured over the WAN connection.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment. The architect has
identified the requirements, based on the assessment and early stages of the design. Click the Exhibit button to view the
requirements.

Pmtrainingprep 1y0-403 exam questions-q5

Additionally, the IT team identified 2 provisioning strategy requirements:
Should be compatible with planned design decisions Should minimize the required time to perform image and application
updates Which provisioning method should the architect use for the environment, based on the design decisions and
requirements are shown in the exhibit?
A. Machine Creation Services (MCS) with App Layering
B. Manual Provisioning with App Layering
C. Manual Provisioning
D. Citrix Provisioning with App Layering
E. Citrix Provisioning
F. Machine Creation Services (MCS)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a Citrix Virtual Desktops environment. The Graphic Editors Group uses a
graphics-intensive and media-rich application. Graphic editors will be provided with a Windows Server 2016 Desktop with
NVIDIA graphics hardware acceleration. HDX 3D Pro and Server VDI options were selected during the command-line
installation of the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA).
Which limitation will affect the Graphic Editors Group?
A. Each virtual desktop requires a dedicated NVIDIA graphics card.
B. Support is available only for a single user session per VDA.
C. The Browser Content Redirection feature is NOT available.
D. Support is limited to the Thinwire graphics protocol.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Scenario: An infrastructure team has stated that the new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops virtualization host will have
the specifications shown in the exhibit. Click the Exhibit button to view the specifications.

Pmtrainingprep 1y0-403 exam questions-q7

The design document calls for the VMs to have 2 CPUs and 4 GB RAM. Approximately how many virtual desktops can
be hosted on each physical server?
A. 190
B. 240
C. 120
D. 60
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/tech-zone/design/design-decisions/single-server-scalability.html (Example 1)

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment. As part of graphics-mode
design considerations the architect determined that one User Group requires hardware acceleration with CPU-enabled
Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines for 3D graphics-design-type applications.
Which graphics mode needs to be configured for this specific group?
A. Visual quality = Build to Lossless
B. Visual quality = Always Lossless
C. Optimize for 3D graphics workload = Disabled D. Optimize for 3D graphics workload = Enabled
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment for a company that
maintains branch offices in New York, Chicago, and Miami. Management has described the following requirements for
the
environment:
The Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops Site must be located in the company headquarters in Miami.
All users will only need to access their default local print queue from within their HDX sessions.
Users in Chicago need access to printers hosted on a Citrix Universal Print Server located in New York.
Printing performance and bandwidth usage must be optimized where possible.
The environment must be highly available.
The auto-created client printer models must function with no additional configuration needed.
Click the Exhibit button to review the printing requirements.

Pmtrainingprep 1y0-403 exam questions-q9

What does the architect need to do to meet the printing requirements for the users in Chicago?
A. Enable the Auto-create client printers policy with the `Auto-create all client printers\\’ setting enabled. Enable the
Universal print driver usage policy to `Use universal printing only\\’. Apply the policy to all users. Then, install and
configure the Citrix Universal Print Server components and configure the Universal Print Server policy to `Enabled with
no fallback to Windows native remote printing\\’. Last, create a session printer policy, add the network printers that will
use the Universal Print Server, and apply the policy to the users in Chicago.
B. Enable the Auto-create client printers policy with the `Auto-create all client printers\\’ setting enabled. Enable the
Universal print driver usage policy to `Use universal printing only\\’. Apply the policy to Chicago users. Then, install and
configure the Citrix Universal Print Server components and configure the Universal Print Server policy to `Enabled with
fallback to Windows native remote printing\\’. Last, create a session printer policy, add the network printers that will use
the Universal Print Server, and apply the policy to all users.
C. Enable the Auto-create client printers policy with `Auto-create all client\\’s default printer only\\’ setting enabled.
Enable the Universal print driver usage policy to `Use universal printing only if the requested driver is unavailable\\’. Apply
the policy to all users. Then, install and configure the Citrix Universal Print Server components and configure the
Universal Print Server policy to `Enabled with fallback to Windows native remote printing\\’. Last, create a session
printer policy, add the network printers that will use the Universal Print Server, and apply the policy to all users.
D. Enable the Auto-create client printers policy with `Auto-create all client\\’s default printer only\\’ setting enabled.
Enable the Universal print driver usage policy to `Use universal printing only\\’. Apply the policy to all users. Then, install
and configure the Citrix Universal Print Server components and configure the Universal Print Server policy to `Enabled
with fallback to Windows native remote printing\\’. Last, create a session printer policy, add the network printers that will
use the Universal Print Server, and apply the policy to the users in Chicago.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-virtual-apps-desktops/policies/reference/ica-policy-settings/printing-policysettings/client-printers-policy-settings.html

QUESTION 10
Scenario: The IT team of a company configured its Citrix environment on Microsoft Azure. Load on the servers is
nominal during the offseason, but during peak season, load increases on the infrastructure servers. This load varies
from year to year. A Citrix Architect is asked to design a solution that dynamically increases and decreases the number
of infrastructure servers.
What should the architect recommend the IT team create in Microsoft Azure to meet this demand?
A. Availability sets
B. Resource group
C. Scale sets
D. Availability domains
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/advanced-concepts/implementation-guides/citrix-adc-vpx-on-azure-autoscaledeployment-guide.html

QUESTION 11
A Citrix Architect is designing the Access Layer for a company that supports active-active mode for Citrix Gateway, as
well as an on-premises, two-factor authentication solution. Which feature supports this requirement?
A. Citrix ADC Standard edition or higher
B. Citrix ADC Cluster
C. High-availability pair
D. Citrix Gateway Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What are three things a Citrix Architect should when using thin clones with Machine Creation Services (MCS)? (Choose
three.)
A. Storage and virtual machine (VM) migration may be more complex when compared to full clones.
B. Provisioning speed is slower when compared to full clones.
C. Storage fragmentation may occur over time.
D. Storage space should be closely monitored.
E. Higher storage space is required when compared to full clones.
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 13
Scenario: A Citrix Architect has developed the hardware requirements for a small production Citrix Virtual Apps and
Desktops environment as follows:
Access to the environment hosted in a single data center Ability to perform maintenance on the environment without
requiring an outage Keep management efforts to a minimum
Which hardware requirement does the architect need to include for Citrix Hypervisor hosts to meet the customer\\’s
needs?
A. N+1 Citrix Hypervisor hosts in a single cluster/pool
B. Separate Citrix Hypervisor cluster/pool in an alternate data center
C. Multiple individual Citrix Hypervisor hosts in the same data center
D. Separate Citrix Hypervisor clusters/pools in the same data center
Correct Answer: D

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Dell

Brilliant Dell Certifications DEA-1TT4,DES-1721,E20-593,E20-597 Dumps [2020]

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QUESTION 1
Based on the exhibit, what does the “X”, “Y”, and “Z” represent in a NAS environment?

Pmtrainingprep DEA-1TT exam questions-q1

A. X = FC SAN, Y = IP Network, and Z = NAS Gateway
B. X = IP Network, Y = FC SAN, and Z = NAS Gateway
C. X = FC SAN, Y = NAS Gateway, and Z= IP Network
D. X = IP Network, Y = NAS Gateway, and Z = FC SAN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
In a compute-based storage area network (SAN), what is a function of the metadata manager?
A. Holds cluster-wide mapping information and load balancing in a compute-based SAN.
B. Performs the I/O operations on the local storage of a compute system as requested by a client.
C. Provides an interface to the software-defined storage controller.
D. Controls all data read and write operations in a compute-based SAN.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
When using the erasure coding technique in an object-based storage system, data is divided into 12 data segments and
4 coding segments. What is the maximum number of disk drive failures against which data is protected by the
configuration?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 8
D. 12
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Why are organizations moving towards a modern data center implementation?
A. Develop modern applications in the public cloud without having the right skill set in-house.
B. Ability to be agile, operate in real time, and develop intelligent products.
C. Deploy only unified and converged IT resources to reduce the management complexity.
D. Reduce the cost of managing data center components by using a self-service catalog.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.actualtechmedia.com/wp-content/uploads/2018/05/Building-a-Modern-Data-Center-ebook.pdf

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QUESTION 1

Pmtrainingprep DES-1721 exam questions-q1

Based on the exhibit, a customer is using Virtual Port Mode. If the primary path for the controller on the “left” is
disconnected while running an IOmeter test for a volume owned by the “left” controller, will the system survive failover?
A. Yes, Virtual Port Mode will failover the I/O through the other available paths.
B. No, Virtual Port Mode does not support port failover.
C. No, the system does not have reserved paths to perform failover.
D. Yes, the reserved path will be active and I/O will continue.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Why should Legacy Port Mode be selected rather than Virtual Port Mode on an SC Series storage array?
A. Virtual Port Mode requires NPIV support
B. Legacy Port Mode is easier to set up and more reliable
C. Virtual Port Mode is difficult to set up
D. Virtual Port Mode does not support ALUA
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which SC Series licenses are applied at the factory?
A. SC4020 and SC7020
B. SC7020 and SCv2000
C. SC8000 and SC9000
D. SCv2000 and SC8000
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Why would the Key Management Server (KMS) Settings page appear during installation?
A. Page appears only if SED drives are present
B. Page only appears if an external KMS is defined during setup and configuration
C. Page is standard and always appears as part of the installation and configuration
D. Page only appears if a security certificate is not generated
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://en.community.dell.com/cfs-file/__key/telligent-evolution-componentsattachments/13-4491-00-00-20-44-02-04/ Securing_2D00_SC_2D00_Series_2D00_storage_2D00_best_2D00_practice
s_2D00_Dell_2D00_2016_2D002800_BP1082_2900_.pdf?forcedownload=true

QUESTION 5
A customer is running the Dell Storage Manager (DSM) Suite as a software stack on Microsoft Windows. To reduce the
Microsoft licensing costs, the customer wants to switch to the DSM Virtual Appliance. Which recommended deployment
should the customer use?
A. Configure as a Primary Data Collector
B. Configure as a Remote Data Collector
C. Migrate the DSM database manually
D. Migrate from the existing Data Collector
Correct Answer: D

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Expertly Designed & Valid E20-593 Questions: Practice Test

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Pmtrainingprep E20-593 exam questions-q1

In the NMM backup workflow, which process is shown in the box marked “A”?
A. nsrsnap_vss_save
B. nsrsnap_save
C. nsr_moss_save
D. nsr_ad_save
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Pmtrainingprep E20-593 exam questions-q2

Based on the exhibit, what is the size of the Dell EMC NetWorker synthetic full backup on Saturday?
A. 1.5 TB
B. 1.7 TB C. 2.1 TB
D. 2.45 TB
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
When adding an EMC NetWorker server\\’s name into the /nsr/res/servers file of a client, which service must be
restarted on the client for the change to take effect?
A. nsrexecd
B. nsrd
C. nsrindexd
D. nsrdb
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A customer is running an EMC NetWorker 7.6 server on a UNIX platform and wants to monitor backup operations from
the command line.
Which utility can be used?
A. nsrinfo
B. nsrmmd
C. nsrjb
D. nsrwatch
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
An EMC NetWorker customer uses a custom schedule for backups and has disabled autostart in all savegroups.
Backup reports indicate that a bootstrap backup occurs after each savegroup is run. What can you do to ensure that
only one bootstrap backup occurs daily?
A. Place the NetWorker server in its own group and enable autostart.
B. Run savegrp -O manually for each group.
C. Disable manual saves in the server configuration.
D. Run a savefs -O manually for each group.
Correct Answer: A

Expertly Designed & Valid E20-597 Questions: Practice Test

QUESTION 1
An Administrator needs to back up a Windows file server that has a million small files in a high density file system.
What is the best way to fulfill the Administrator\\’s requirements?
A. Block level backup using SnapImage
B. Volume level backup
C. Enable client-side compression
D. Increase client parallelism
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A backup administrator is configuring Dell EMC Networker to use Data Domain Cloud Tier devices. During the
configuration, a message appears that the Data Domain data movement policy will be updated to an app-based policy.
What is a function of the app-based policy?
A. Direct the NetWorker clone action to copy data to the Data Domain Cloud Tier device
B. Direct the NetWorker backup action to copy data directly to the cloud provider
C. Direct the NetWorker backup action to copy data to the Data Domain device
D. Direct the Data Domain system to copy data to the cloud provider
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/en-us/collaterals/unauth/technical-guides-supportinformation/products/networking-4/docu85859.pdf

QUESTION 3
What is a benefit of using remote devices in Dell EMC NetWorker?
A. Allow the backup workload to be distributed to multiple storage nodes
B. Save backup time by using image-level backup processing
C. Isolate groups of clients from other clients in the datazone
D. Reduce the capacity requirements for backup storage
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A company is running an EMC NetWorker server on a UNIX platform and wants to monitor backup operations from the
UNIX command line.
Which utility can be used?
A. nsrwatch
B. nsradmin
C. nsrinfo
D. nsralist
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
In EMC NetWorker, which utility is used to view the “daemon.raw” file using the locale of the current host?
A. nsr_render_log
B. nsr_la
C. nsr_layout
D. nsr_task
Correct Answer: A

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