Index

What do I get when I purchase the CompTIA N10-005 dump practice exam? The Network + Certification Exam (N10-005) exam is a 828Q assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CompTIA certification. “Network + Certification Exam” is the exam name of Pass4itsure CompTIA N10-005 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the CompTIA N10-005 exam. Pass4itsure is a leader in producing updated quality based CompTIA Network+ N10-005 dump for IT Professions and Students. Latest release CompTIA N10-005 dump practice test pdf-answers Youtube study guide with low price. Our CompTIA Network+ https://www.pass4itsure.com/n10-005.html dump helps you overcome your CompTIA Certification N10-005 exam fear.

: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWVEVFWkVBZVEzM28

: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWNVlLVzlLN1cxZE0

Share Some CompTIA Specialist N10-005 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 13
Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope?
A. Reservations
B. Lease times
C. Removing IPs from the active leases
D. Configuring the DNS options
N10-005 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Reservations are permanent lease assignments that are used to ensure that a specified client on a subnet can always use the same IP address. You can use DHCP reservations for hosts that require a consistent IP address, but do not need to be statically configured.
QUESTION 14
Spanning-Tree Protocol is used with which of the following network devices?
A. Router
B. NIC
C. Switch
D. DHCP server
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 protocol that runs on bridges and switches. The specification for STP is IEEE 802.1D. The main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not create loops when you have redundant paths in your network. Loops are deadly to a network.
QUESTION 15
A technician wants to separate networks on a switch. Which of the following should be configured to allow this?
A. VLAN
B. Trunking
C. Spanning tree
D. Traffic filtering
N10-005 dump Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A VLAN is a group of end stations in a switched network that is logically segmented by function, project team, or application, without regard to the physical locations of the users. VLANs have the same attributes as physical LANs, but you can group end stations even if they are not physically located on the same LAN segment.
QUESTION 16
A user wants to connect seven PCs together for a game night. Which of the following should the user install to help with this task?
A. Media convertor
B. Switch
C. Firewall
D. Bridge
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
They connect multiple PCs, printers, servers and other hardware. Switches allow you to send information, such as email, and access shared resources, including printers, in a smooth, efficient, and transparent manner.
QUESTION 17
Which of the following defines the amount of time a host retains a specific IP address before it is renewed or released?
A. DHCP lease
B. DNS suffix
C. Subnet mask
D. DHCP reservation
N10-005 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, each IP address assigned by a DHCP Server comes with a one-day lease, which is the amount of time that the address is valid.
QUESTION 18
Users are reporting that some Internet websites are not accessible anymore. Which of the following will allow the network administrator to quickly isolate the remote router that is causing the network communication issue, so that the problem can be reported to the appropriate responsible party?
A. Ping
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Tracert
D. Dig
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Tracet command will tell the administrator which route is not present or which is present so he will come to know whether he has appropriate route or not.
QUESTION 19
Ann, a new user, has a workstation that has connectivity to the printer located in her department, but cannot access the Internet. The result of an ipconfig command on Ann’s workstation is as follows: Which is MOST likely preventing the user from accessing the Internet?
A. Duplicate IP address
B. Incorrect gateway
C. Incorrect VLAN
D. Bad switch port
N10-005 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
We usually give default gateway as an end device which is directly connected with ISP so in this case user has lost his connectivity with due to wrong default gateway configured.
QUESTION 20
Which of the following is the common port used for IMAP?
A. 25
B. 53
C. 143
D. 443
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Internet Message Access Protocol (commonly known as IMAP) is an Application Layer Internet protocol that allows an e-mail client to access e-mail on a remote mail server. The current version, IMAP version 4 revision 1 (IMAP4rev1), is defined by RFC 3501. An IMAP server typically listens on well-known port 143
QUESTION 21
Which of the following network protocols is used to resolve FQDNs to IP addresses?
A. DNS
B. FTP
C. DHCP
D. APIPA
N10-005 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An Internet service that translates domain names into IP addresses. Because domain names are alphabetic, they’re easier to remember. The Internet however, is really based on IP addresses. Every time you use a domain name, therefore, a DNS service must translate the name into the corresponding IP address.
QUESTION 22
Which of the following network protocols is used to transport email between servers?
A. IMAP4
B. POP3
C. SNMP
D. SMTP
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
While electronic mail servers and other mail transfer agents use SMTP to send and receive mail messages, user-level client mail applications typically use SMTP
only for sending messages to a mail server for relaying
QUESTION 23
Ann, a technician, installs a new WAP and users are able to connect; however, users cannot access the Internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The signal strength has been degraded and latency is increasing hop count.
B. An incorrect subnet mask has been entered in the WAP configuration.
C. The signal strength has been degraded and packets are being lost.
D. Users have specified the wrong encryption type and routes are being rejected.
N10-005 dump Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Due to wrong subnet entered user is unable to communicate with anyone so to communicate he needs to be in right subnet.

Our CompTIA Network+ N10-005 dump resembles the actual one helping you pass the CompTIA N10-005 certification exam with more confidence. If you want to prepare for N10-005 exam in shortest possible time, with minimum effort but for most effective result, you can use Passcert CompTIA Network+ N10-005 dumps which with https://www.pass4itsure.com/n10-005.html dump simulates the actual testing environment and allows you to focus on various sections of N10-005 exam.

CompTIA N10-005 Dumps Youtube: https://youtu.be/1rDAip7ZRyM

What is the preparation tips for Microsoft 70-465 dumps exam? The Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation (70-465 SQL Server ) exam is a 90-minute 60 Q&As assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the MCP, MCSE certification.”Microsoft Dynamics CRM Installation” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-465 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Microsoft 70-465 exam. Most Important Microsoft 70-465 dumps exam questions Microsoft Data Platform study pdf training material. This specific is the reason why so many Microsoft SQL Server exam professionals related to the field of IT are seen fascinated in going for the https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-465.html dumps exam for their better profession chances in this field of IT.

: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWUXhqbDdvc1J5dUk

: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWYkpNOFdaS1QtcUE

Share Some Microsoft Specialist 70-465 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 1
During performance testing, you discover that database INSERT operations against the Inventory table are slow. You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to complete the INSERT operations.What should you recommend?
A. Partition the nonclustered index.
B. Partition the Inventory table.snapshot replication
C. Create a column store index.Master Data Services
D. Drop the clustered index.change data capture
70-465 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Scenario: Database2 will contain a table named Inventory. Inventory will contain over 100 GB of data. The Inventory table will have two indexes: a clustered index on the primary key and a nonclustered index. The column that is used as the primary key will use the identity property.
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a solution to allow application users to perform tables. The solution must meet the business requirements. What should you recommend?
A. Create a Policy-Based Management Policy.
B. Create a user-defined database role and add users to the role.
C. Create stored procedures that use EXECUTE AS clauses.
D. Create functions that use EXECUTE AS clauses.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* EXECUTE AS Clause (Transact-SQL)
In SQL Server you can define the execution context of the following user-defined modules: functions (except inline table-valued functions), procedures, queues, and triggers.
QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a feature to support your backup solution.What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)
B. Column-level encryption
C. An NTFS file permission
D. A Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
70-465 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario: · You must encrypt the backup files to meet regulatory compliance requirements. The encryption strategy must minimize changes to the databases and to the applications.
* Transparent data encryption (TDE) performs real-time I/O encryption and decryption of the data and log files. The encryption uses a database encryption key (DEK), which is stored in the database boot record for availability during recovery.
QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a solution for Application1 that meets the security requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Signed stored procedures
B. Certificate Authentication
C. Encrypted columns
D. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario:
/ Data from Database2 will be accessed periodically by an external application named Application1 / Application developers must be denied direct access to the database tables. Applications must be denied direct access to the tables.
QUESTION 5
You need to recommend a disk monitoring solution that meets the business requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. An audit
B. A dynamic management view
C. A maintenance plan
D. A SQL Server Agent alert
70-465 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You need to recommend a solution to improve the performance of usp.UpdateInventory. The solution must minimize the amount of development effort. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A table variable
B. A common table expression
C. A subquery
D. A cursor
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*Scenario: Database2 will contain a stored procedure named usp_UpdateInventory. Usp_UpdateInventory will manipulate a table that contains a self-join that has an unlimited number of hierarchies.
* A table variable can be very useful to store temporary data and return the data in the table format.
* Example: The following example uses a self-join to find the products that are supplied by more than one vendor.
Because this query involves a join of the ProductVendor table with itself, the ProductVendor table appears in two roles. To distinguish these roles, you must give the ProductVendor table two different aliases (pv1 and pv2) in the FROM clause. These aliases are used to qualify the column names in the rest of the query. This is an example of the self-join Transact-SQL statement: USE AdventureWorks2008R2;
GO
SELECT DISTINCT pv1.ProductID, pv1.VendorID
FROM Purchasing.ProductVendor pv1
INNER JOIN Purchasing.ProductVendor pv2
ON pv1.ProductID = pv2.ProductID
AND pv1.VendorID <> pv2.VendorID
ORDER BY pv1.ProductID
Incorrect:
Not B: Using a CTE offers the advantages of improved readability and ease in maintenance of complex queries. The query can be divided into separate, simple, logical building blocks. These simple blocks can then be used to build more complex, interim CTEs until the final result set is generated.
QUESTION 7
You need to recommend a solution for the deployment of SQL Server 2014. The solution must meet the business requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Create a new instance of SQL Server 2014 on the server that hosts the SQL Server 2008 instance.
B. Upgrade the existing SQL Server 2008 instance to SQL Server 2014.
C. Deploy two servers that have SQL Server 2014 installed and implement Failover Clustering.
D. Deploy two servers that have SQL Server 2014 installed and implement database mirroring.
70-465 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Scenario: The databases must be available if the SQL Server service fails.
QUESTION 8
You need to recommend a solution to synchronize Database2 to App1_Db1. What should you recommend?
A. Change data capture
B. Snapshot replication
C. Master Data Services
D. Transactional replication
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Scenario:
* Data from Database2 will be accessed periodically by an external application named Application1. The data from Database2 will be sent to a database named App1_Db1 as soon as changes occur to the data in Database2.
* All data in Database2 is recreated each day and does not change until the next data creation process.

There are different levels of the Microsoft certification exams that this Designing Database Solutions for Microsoft SQL Server 2012 certification 70-465 dumps exam experts can attempt for but, usually many of them are 70-465 questions are really very easy and this is the reason why the Designing Database Solutions for Microsoft SQL Server https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-465.html dumps certification exam needs to be effectively prepared for.

How can I find the Cisco 210-065 dump with correct answers? The Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0 (210-065 CIVND) exam is a 75 minutes (55 – 65 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNA Collaboration Cisco Video Network Specialist certification.”Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 210-065 dump test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 210-065 exam. Latest Cisco CIVND 210-065 dump vce CCNA Collaboration exam questions in the Cisco Learning Network with Cisco video online.

Pass4itsure 210-065 dumps questions for Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices (CIVND) https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-065.html dump exam certification consists of PDF questions & self preparing software and practices tests.

: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWQk1xeU5TZ3ExalE

: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWam9uZE5CQl9jczA

Share Some Cisco Specialist 210-065 Dump Exam Questions and Answers Below:
QUESTION 1
When configuring the Cisco TelePresence System 500 with a static IP address, where should the IP address be configured?
A. in Cisco Unified Communications Manager after adding the Cisco TelePresence System 500 manually
B. in the Cisco TelePresence System Administration tool
C. in the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite after the Cisco TelePresence System 500 was added under systems
D. Static IP address configuration is not possible. Only a DHCP-provided IP address is supported.
E. using the on-screen display
210-065 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
A customer requests a configuration that enables users to easily add a third party to an existing call. The environment contains only three Cisco TelePresence C40 codecs and one Cisco VCS. To achieve the customer\’s requirements, which feature should be added?
A. Cisco MultiWay
B. Cisco TelePresence Conductor
C. Cisco TMS
D. Cisco Multisite
E. Cisco VCS Expressway
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

Which CLI command should be run to resolve these alarms on a Cisco VCS?
A. xcommand DefaultValuesSet
B. xconfiguration DefaultLinksAdd
C. xcommand DefaultLinksAdd
D. xconfiguration DefaultValuesSet
210-065 dump Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Video Surveillance product contains the Cisco Video Surveillance Encoding Server?
A. Video Communications Server
B. Cisco Video Surveillance Operations Manager
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Transcoding and Encoding Server
E. Cisco Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
When you configure a zone for firewall traversal, which type of zone is the Cisco VCS-C configured for?
A. client
B. server
C. proxy
D. gateway
E. neighbor
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
An engineer is deploying a Cisco TelePresence Touch 8 controller for a Cisco TelePresence SX20. Which two steps are required as part of this process? (Choose two.)
A. Connect the cable from the Touch 8 controller to the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
B. Connect the Touch 8 controller to the power adapter and connect the adapter to the network.
C. Connect the Touch 8 controller to the secondary network adapter on the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
D. Reboot the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
E. Hold the mute button down for 20 seconds while you power on the Touch 8 controller.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 7
Which three of these are functions of the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose three.)
A. automatic software update and release keys
B. intelligent call routing engine
C. provisioning a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint
D. tracing SIP and H.323 calls
E. managing phonebooks for endpoints that are registered to the Cisco Unified Cisco Unified Communications Manager
F. rebooting endpoints that are registered to the Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server
210-065 vce Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 8
You are checking a DHCP server configuration for video endpoints. What is the role of option 150 in the configuration?
A. It is the NTP server IPv4 address.
B. It is not necessary to specify the role of option 150.
C. It is the TFTP server IPv4 address.
D. It is the TFTP server IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
A technician is trying to pair a Touch 8 with a Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint, but the codec is not automatically
listed in the touch panel. What are two possible reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)
A. The codec firmware version is below version TC 6.1.
B. The codec and the Touch 8 are on separate subnets.
C. Pairing visibility mode is not active on the codec.
D. The codec is not compatible with a Touch 8 device.
E. The Touch 8 is connected via the second Ethernet port on the codec.
210-065 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 10
A customer owns three Codian 5300 MCUs with several video endpoints. Users complain that they are getting
multipoint control unit port capacity errors when scheduling video conferences in Cisco TMS. What can be done to
correct these errors automatically?
A. Enable the Automatic MCU Cascading option in the Cisco TMS Conference Settings.
B. Install a Cascading option key on the Cisco TMS server.
C. Install a Cisco TelePresence Conductor server.
D. Install cascaded multipoint control units.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

When the administrator clicks the ticket number of any of the open tickets, which two actions are presented to the
administrator? (Choose two.)
A. ignore ticket
B. acknowledge ticket
C. delete ticket
D. close ticket
E. escalate ticket
210-065 dump Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 12
Which bridge solution requires Cisco TelePresence Conductor?
A. Cisco TelePresence Server operating in remotely managed mode
B. Cisco TelePresence Server operating in locally managed mode
C. Cisco TelePresence MCU operating in remotely managed mode
D. Cisco TelePresence MCU operating in locally managed mode
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
On the Cisco VCS-E, what is the default port number for the H.323 connection on the first traversal zone between a Cisco VCS-C and Cisco VCS-E?
A. 1719
B. 1720
C. 5060
D. 6001
E. 7001
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which option is the embedded component that enables endpoints and collaboration applications to support medianet functionality?
A. Media Services Interface
B. Open API
C. XMPP
D. SNMP
E. Medianet Agent
F. SDN
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit Layout view mode gives prominence to one conference participant over the other conference participants while still allowing conference participants to view multiple participants at the same time?
A. enhanced continuous presence
B. active speaker
C. continuous presence
D. room switching
E. speaker switching
210-065 vce Correct Answer: A

In order to pass CCNA Collaboration 210-065 dump new questions, We are providing you the easy and instant Cisco 210-065 dumps pdf & vce product. Yes your dream for passing Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices (CIVND) exam in first try is going to be fulfilled by our easy mode CIVND https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-065.html dump training material for CCNA Collaboration test. 210-065 answers are verified by Cisco certified professionals.

What’s new with Microsoft 70-412 dumps? “Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services” also known as 70-412 exam, is a Microsoft certification which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Latest release Microsoft 70-412 dump practice exam Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services Youtube study. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-412 dumps exam questions answers are updated (424 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 70-412 dumps is Windows Server 2012. Pass4itsure offer the latest https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-412.html dump exam material and high-quality Microsoft 70-412 dump pdf questions & answers.

Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Q&As: 424

: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWTVhyb3I4T3F4blE

: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWMTI2YWpnc1ZUOXM

YOU’LL LEARN TO IMPLEMENT

• Advanced network services.
• Advanced file services.
• Dynamic Access Control.
• Network load balancing (NLB).
• Failover clustering.
• Failover clustering with Hyper-V.
• Disaster recovery.
• Distributed Active Directory® Domain Services (AD DS) deployments.
• AD DS sites and replication.
• Active Directory Certification Services (AD CS).
• Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS).
• Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).

Share Some Microsoft Specialist 70-412 Dump Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 93
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and uses Windows Server Backup. You need to identify whether the backups performed on Server1 support bare metal recovery. Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Get-OBMachineSetting
B. GetWBVSSBackupOption
C. Get-WBPolicy
D. Get-OBPolicy
70-412 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
Which permission should you assign on a CA to a group of users that you want to be able to respond to certificate requests but you do not want to provide them with the ability to change CA security settings?
A. Read
B. Issue And Manage Certificates
C. Manage CA
D. Request Certificates
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 95
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You have a subscription to Windows Azure. You need to register the Microsoft Azure Backup Agent on Server1. What should you do first?
A. Install the Microsoft System Center 2012 Data Protection Manager (DPM) agent.
B. Create a backup vault.
C. Create Site Recovery vault.
D. Configure a passphrase for the Azure Backup Agent.
70-412 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 96
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a main office and a branch office. An Active Directory site exists for each office. The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Both servers have the DHCP Server server role installed. Server1 is located in the main office site. Server2 is located in the branch office site. Server1 provides IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the main office site. Server2 provides IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the branch office site. You need to ensure that if either Server1 or Server2 are offline, the client computers can still obtain IPv4 addresses. The solution must meet the following requirements: The storage location of the DHCP databases must not be a single point of failure. Server1 must provide IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the branch office site only if Server2 is offline. Server2 must provide IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the main office site only if Server1 is offline. Which configuration should you use?
A. load sharing mode failover partners
B. a failover cluster
C. hot standby mode failover partners
D. a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 97
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two child domains and six domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to replicate users who haven’t authenticated against any domain controllers for the last 7 days. What should you use?
A. Set-ADSite
B. Set-ADReplicationSite
C. Set-ADDomain
D. Set-ADReplicationSiteLink
E. Set-ADGroup
F. Set-ADForest
G. Netdom
70-412 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers run Windows 8 Enterprise. You have a remote site that only contains client computers. All of the client computer accounts are located in an organizational unit (OU) named Remote1. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to the Remote1 OU. You need to configure BranchCache for the remote site. Which two settings should you configure in GPO1? To answer, select the two appropriate settings in the answer area.
Hot Area:

QUESTION: 99
Your report includes a dynamic parameter named “Where” that uses a cascading list of values from Country to Region to City. You create discrete value parameters for all three fields. Using Los Angeles as an example, you want to display the report title as “Customers in Los Angeles, CA, USA”. Which text object will display the report as required?
A. Customers in {?Where ?City}, {?Where ?Region}, {?Where ?Country}
B. Customers in {?Where ?City} + – + {?Where ?Region} + , + {?Where ?Country}
C. Customers in {?Where ?City}, {?Where ?Country}, {?Where ?Region}
D. Customers in {?Where ?Country}, {?Where ?Region}, {?Where ?City}
70-412 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 100
Which lines of code use the correct syntax to assign a variable a value in Basic syntax?
A. Numbervar x; x = 5;,
B. Dim x as Number x := 5
C. Numbervar x; x := 5;
D. Dim x as Number x = 5
Answer: D
QUESTION: 101
In Crystal Reports you select multiple report objects at the same time. Which three menu options become available when you right-click one of the selected objects?(Choose three.)
A. Format Objects
B. Align
C. Size
D. Delete
E. Move
Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION: 102
You create a new Crystal report with a summary value. You must select only the Bottom N groups, removing groups that do not fit the criteria. Some groups may have equal summarized values. How can you accomplish the required result using the Group Sort Expert?
A. Select the Bottom Percentage sort option, deselect the Include Others option and select the Include ties option.
B. Select the Bottom N sort option, deselect the Include Others option and select the Include ties option.
C. Select the Bottom Percentage sort option, select the Include Others option and select the Include ties option.
D. Select the Bottom N sort option, select the Include Others option and select the Include ties option.
70-412 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 103
Which two types of objects can you apply dynamic field sorting to? (Choose two.)
A. Text Field
B. Field Heading
C. Formula Field
D. Database Field
E. Parameter Field
Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 104
You must summarize the sales amounts for all customers with less than $1000 per sale. How would you evaluate this in the Running Total Expert?
A. For each record
B. On change of field
C. Use a formula
D. On change of group
70-412 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 105
You want to use a report’s data in another application. The application requires the data in a custom XML format. Which two steps must you perform? (Choose two.)
A. Import the XSLT.
B. Export the XSLT.
C. Import the report using XML.
D. Export the report to XML format.
Answer: A, D

Our Microsoft 70-412 dump testing engine and Microsoft 70-412 study guide can help you pass the real exam. High-quality Microsoft 70-412 dump training materials can 100% guarantee you pass the exam faster and easier. Pass the exam to obtain https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-412.html dump certification is so simple.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/6F7RTRwNTuQ

Fastest Way to Certify Cisco 642-385 dumps? “Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers” is the name of Cisco 642-385 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. New updated Cisco 642-385 dumps exam questions 100% pass with a high score Youtube training. Pass4itsure Cisco 642-385 dumps exam questions answers are updated (81 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 642-385 dumps is Others. Pass4itsure offers the latest https://www.pass4itsure.com/642-385.html dumps training materials for Cisco 642-385 certification exam.

Exam Code: 642-385
Exam Name: Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers
Q&As: 81

: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWb2xNdWlsUDdtbFU

: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWUlpfYUVGTkJBVDg

Share Some Cisco Specialist 642-385 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 1
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement
642-385 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical
project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment
642-385 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
A. Communication models.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational communications,
D. Organizational cultures and styles.
642-385 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis
are examples of which tool or technique?
A. Expert judgment
B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning
642-385 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Collect Requirements
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project
objectives?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
642-385 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing,
managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
A. Plan Schedule Management.
B. Develop Project Charter.
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Plan Scope Management.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur
during the project?
A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Expert judgment
D. Change requests
642-385 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
A. The project charter.
B. The stakeholder analysis.
C. A communication management plan.
D. A stakeholder register.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
A. Cost estimates.
B. Resource calendars,
C. The project charter,
D. The risk register.
642-385 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual
performance is:
A. Product analysis.
B. Variance analysis.
C. Document analysis,
D. Decomposition.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting
relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:
A. Develop Project Team.
B. Manage Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team.
D. Plan Human Resource Management.
642-385 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often
involves physical limitations?
A. Mandatory
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. External
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is
completed and that the project has met its objectives?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Control Scope
642-385 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
A. Work performance reports.
B. Change requests.
C. Activity resource requirements.
D. Enterprise environmental factors.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Purchase order
C. Source selection criteria
D. Bidder conference
642-385 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an
example of which type of communication?
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Push
D. Pull
642-385 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:
A. Performance measurement baseline.
B. Analysis of project forecasts,
C. Summary of changes approved in a period,
D. Analysis of past performance.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a
life cycle that is:
A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Incremental
D. Iterative
642-385 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is
$150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?
A. 0.50
B. 0.67
C. 1.50
D. 2.00
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?
A. Schedule data
B. Activity list
C. Risk register
D. Scope baseline
642-385 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?
A. Interactive communication
B. Claims administration
C. Conflict management
D. Performance reporting
642-385 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any
decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?
A. Interrelationship digraphs
B. Tree diagram
C. Affinity diagram
D. Network diagram
Correct Answer: B

The hard-working professionals by Pass4itsure constantly renew courseware through their own expertise and experience so that the professionals can easily pass the test. The Cisco 642-385 dumps represents an increasingly important place in the IT industry. And more and more people have engaged in this https://www.pass4itsure.com/642-385.html dumps test.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/CoVz8z2dof8

What is the best way to prepare for the Cisco 210-260 dumps exam? “Implementing Cisco Network Security” is the name of Cisco 210-260 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Real latest Cisco IINS 210-260 dumps practice test with high quality youtube learing— Real Exam Model and Comprehensible Interface. Pass4itsure Cisco 210-260 dumps exam questions answers are updated (310 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 210-260 dumps is CCNA Security. The CCNA Security https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-260.html dumps IINS practice tests come with an assortment of self-assessment features like more than a few questions types, exam histories and test scores et cetera.

Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWU0xad3NvRWR4Qzg

: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWNHFtR0VqbXVEeUU 

Share Some Cisco Specialist 210-260 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 51
Click on the exhibit button below.
Given the configuration shown, how much of a link’s 100Mbps reservable bandwidth can an LSP access when configured for class-type 0 and priority 1?
A. 10Mbps
B. 20Mbps
C. 30Mpbs
D. 60Mbps
E. 70Mbps
210-260 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 52
Which of the following statements is true of an established LDP session?
A. It uses a UDP connection with an arbitrary port number.
B. It uses a UDP connection with well known port number 646.
C. It uses a TCP connection with an arbitrary port number.
D. It uses a TCP connection with well known port number 646.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
Click on the exhibit button below.
Which fields in this output uniquely identify the RSVP session belonging to a single LSP? (Choose three)
A. Tunnel ID
B. Name
C. LSP ID
D. To
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 54
How many bits of the MPLS header are used for the label field?
A. 16
B. 20
C. 24
D. 25
E. 32
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Which of the following best describes constraint-based routing?
A. A mechanism that implements opaque LSAs.
B. A mechanism that computes routes based on defined user requirements.
C. A mechanism that allows the IGP shortest path to be used.
D. A mechanism that allows RSVP or LDP signaling to use a route other than the IGP best route to establish a LSP.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
A targeted-LDP session may exist between directly connected or non-directly connected devices
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 57
On a point-to-point link, two directly connected routers set different interface hello timeout values. Router R1 uses 15 seconds, while router R2 uses 30 seconds. What happens to the LDP adjacency?
A. The adjacency forms with the lower timeout value
B. The “show router Idp session” command output displays the adjacency in state “init”
C. The adjacency forms with the higher timeout value
D. The adjacency times out after 30 seconds
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 58
Router R4 originates 500 RSVP signaled LSPs with default hello and refresh timer settings If the only downstream communication fails (link is operationally UP), how long will RSVP wait before it declares the RSVP sessions down?
A. 3000ms
B. 9000ms
C. 30000ms
D. 120000ms
210-260 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
Click on the exhibit button below.
LSP “toR8-5” requests fast reroute protection on the primary loose path. What could be done to remove the Failure Code shown?
A. CSPF must be enabled at head-end on fast reroute protected loose path LSPs
B. Fast reroute must first be enabled on the downstream routers.
C. CSPF must be enabled on all downstream loose hop routers.
D. Global revertive path optimization must be enabled so the path will be re-optimized around a failed node.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Click on the exhibit button below.
If the four LSPs shown use the shared-explicit reservation style, how much bandwidth does CSPF request across a single 1Gbps link?
A. 100Mbps
B. 200Mbps
C. 300Mpbs
D. 600Mbps
E. 700Mbps
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 61
Which of the following statements regarding the MPLS SWAP label operation is true?
A. The inner label will be exchanged with the MPLS outer label.
B. The inner label will be exchanged for a new label.
C. The outer label will be exchanged for a new label.
D. All labels will be exchanged for one new label.
E. All labels will be exchanged for an equal number of new labels.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
If the destination IP address of a received unlabeled packet is successfully matched in the FIB, which of  the following statements are true? Choose two answers.
A. A PUSH label stack operation must be performed.
B. The outgoing interface and next-hop address will be determined from the FIB.
C. The packet can be forwarded as a labeled or unlabeled packet.
D. A POP label stack operation may be performed.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 63
Which of the following devices receives labeled packets from the MPLS domain, removes the MPLS header, and forwards unlabeled packets outside the MPLS domain?
A. P router
B. LSR
C. eLER
D. iLER
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
Which of the following statements are true? Choose two answers
A. Selected labels from the FIB are populated to the LIB.
B. Selected labels from the LIB are populated to the LFIB.
C. Selected routes from the RIB are populated to the FIB.
D. Selected routes from the FIB are populated to the RIB.
E. All labels from the LIB are populated to the LFIB.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 65
When a device receives a labeled packet, which of the following can occur?
A. The packet can only be forwarded as an unlabeled packet.
B. The packet can be forwarded as a labeled or unlabeled packet, depending on the received label value.
C. The packet can be forwarded as a labeled or unlabeled packet, depending on the destination IP address in the payload
D. The packet can only be forwarded as a labeled packet.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: B

Get the demo of Cisco 210–260 dumps right away! You can try the order for free! There is no card number, PayPal account details or other transaction details are necessary from your side to get your order https://www.pass4itsure.com/210-260.html dumps.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/kWu7ntHP4UE

Where can I get the valid Microsoft 70-348 dumps exam questions for passing? “Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM (beta)” is the name of Microsoft 70-348 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Best quality Microsoft Beta 70-348 dumps exam Office 365 Project Portfolio Management study guide youtube online. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-348 dumps exam questions answers are updated (48 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 70-348 dumps is Office 365 Project Portfolio Management. We are doing our utmost to provide https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-348.html dumps services with high speed and efficiency to save your valuable time for the majority of candidates.

Exam Code: 70-348
Exam Name: Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM (beta)
Q&As: 48

: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWOURoUDk4U2Ffc3c

: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWRUxhcnNwd1BuUkE

Share Some Microsoft Specialist 70-348 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION: 21
Which three If-Then-Else control structure formulas in Crystal syntax will generate an error? (Choose three.)
A. If {Orders.Order Amount} < 100 Then”Under $100″ElseIs {Orders.Order Amount} in 100 to 200 Then “Between $100 and $200”
B. If {Orders.order Amount} < 1000 Then “Low” Else “High”
C. If {Orders.Order Amount} < 100 Then formula = “Under $100” ElseIf {Orders.Order Amount} in 100 to 200 Then formula = “Between $100 and $200” EndIf
D. If {Orders.Order Amount} < 200 ThenUnder $200 ElseIf {Orders.Order Amount} in 200 to 300 Then Between $200 and $300
70-348 exam Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 22
Which two methods can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report? (Choose two.)
A. Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the Context menu.
B. Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
C. Open the Section Expert and click the Insert button.
D. Click the field name and click the Insert to Report icon at the top of the Field Explorer. Drag the field to the desired position and left-click to insert.
Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 23
You are designing a Crystal report that summarizes customer orders by country, then by state, then by city and by customer ID. You want the report to print each country on a new page. Thefirst page should display a bar chart showing Total Sales by Country group in the
Report Header and as much of the first country as can be displayed. The last page should show the summary for the last country and the grand total for the entire report. Which step can you perform in the Section Expert to achieve the design goal?
A. Set New Page After on for Group Footer #1
B. Conditionally format the New Page After property for Group Footer #1 using the formula “not onlastrecord”
C. Format the New Page After property for Group Header #1 using the formula “not onlastrecord”
D. Set New Page After on for the Report Header section
70-348 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 24
You want to create a formula using the Formula Workshop. You begin by right-clicking Formula Fields in the Field Explorer and then click the New button. What happens after you click the New button?
A. You must select the type of formula and click OK.
B. The Formula Workshop opens with the Formula Editor inactive.
C. You must enter a formula name and click OK.
D. The Formula Workshop opens with the Formula Editor active.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 25
Which three options are provided for web pagination? (Choose three.)
A. Navigation controls
B. Page breaking controls
C. Conditional Page Margin controls
D. Portrait versus Landscape controls
70-348 pdf Answer: B, C, D
QUESTION: 26
What are three Crystal Reports 2008 viewer features? (Choose three.)
A. Docked/Stationary Toolbar
B. Export to Microsoft PowerPoint
C. Java DHTML Viewer Exporting
D. Independent Group Tree Scrolling
Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 27
How must you register multiple XML export formats in Crystal Reports 2008?
A. Configure XML export formats using the Define XML dialog.
B. Configure XML export formats using the Manage XML dialog.
C. Add XML export formats using the Manage XML Exporting Formats dialog.
D. Add XML export formats using the Define XML Exporting Formats dialog.
70-348 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 28
You have created a report with a parameter but the parameter value is not always required.
Which method should you use?
A. Set Editable to True
B. Set Null Values to True
C. Set Custom Values to True
D. Set Optional Prompt to True
Answer: D
QUESTION: 29
Which two reasons explain why the Group Sort Expert is disabled when you attempt to create a Top N report? (Choose two.)
A. You are in Design view.
B. The data was not refreshed.
C. You are in a Drill Down view.
D. The report is missing a summary value.
70-348 exam Answer: C, D
QUESTION: 30
You make changes to the record selection criteria in a Crystal report. In which two circumstances should you choose the Refresh Data option rather than the Use Saved Data option? (Choose two.)
A. When up-to-the-minute, current information must be displayed on the report.
B. When adding one or more selection criteria.
C. When it is important to avoid time delays caused by network traffic during database server connects.
D. When removing one or more existing selection criteria.
Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 31
Which Crystal Reports feature can you use to limit the number of records included in a report?
A. SQL Expression
B. Formula Workshop
C. Preview Sample
D. Record Selection Formula
70-348 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 32
The database structure is changed to include a Products table. Which tool would you use to add the Products table to the Customer Sales report?
A. Field Explorer
B. Select Expert
C. Report Explorer
D. Database Expert
Answer: D
QUESTION: 33
You create a new Crystal report and group the report by the customer name and then by country. The tables in your database have a one-to-many linking relationship. Because of the linking relationship, field values from the primary table are repeated for each new field value causingdouble counting in the lookup table. Which two methods can you use to create accurate summaries? (Choose two.)
A. Use Dynamic Summarized Fields Expert.
B. Use Running Total Expert.
C. Create conditional grouping formulas.
D. Create manual running totals.
70-348 pdf Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 34
What can Crystal Reports developers use to add application-specific toolbars to the Report
Designer?
A. Add-Ins
B. WorkBench
C. Report Options
D. Insert Toolbars
Answer: A

The Microsoft 70-348 dumps exam materials of Pass4itsure offer a lot of information for your exam guide, including the questions and answers. Pass4itsure is best website that providing Microsoft https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-348.html dumps exam training materials with high quality on the Internet.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/VbBiQHTPCeg

How can I study for the Microsoft 70-532 dumps? “Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions” is the name of Microsoft 70-532 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Prepare for the real Microsoft 70-532 dumps exam video test for download Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-532 dumps exam questions answers are updated (136 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 70-532 dumps is MCP, Microsoft Specialist. Pass4itsure offering preparation material for this exam but it is your responsibility to buy product for Microsoft 70-532 exam dumps pdf questions and vce practice test software preparation.

Exam Code: 70-532
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
Q&As: 188

: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWUXhqbDdvc1J5dUk

: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWRzdFOXJORHhsck0

Share Some Microsoft Specialist 70-532 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:
9.You need to configure storage for the solution. What should you do? To answer, drag the appropriate XML segments to the correct locations. Each XML segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

10.You need to configure scaling for the plagiarism detection service.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate values in the dialog box in the answer area.
Hot Area:

70-532 exam Correct Answer:

11.Users report that after periods of inactivity the website is slow to render pages and to process sign-in attempts. You need to ensure that the website is always responsive. What should you do?
A. Add the following markup at line WC14:
<sessionState timeout-“86400” />
B. Add the following markup at line WC08:
<add key=”timeout” value=”null” />
C. Add the following markup at line WC14:
<sessionState timeout=”fl” />
D. In the Azure management portal, enable Always On support for the website.
E. In the Azure management portal, disable Always On support for the website.
Correct Answer: A
12.You need to implement the worker role to support the real-time continuous data-collection service. How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

70-532 dumps Correct Answer:

13. Which statement(s) is/are correct regarding the administrative Copy Data feature available in the
Planning Web? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
A. Data can be copied between versions only, for select scenarios
B. Data can be copied between scenarios only, for selected versions
C. Data can be copied between any dimensional intersection, assuming all dimensions and members are
present in the selected plan types
D. Cell Text is copied
E. Account Annotations are copied
F. Supporting detail is copied
G. Planning Unit Annotations are copied
H. You are prevented from copying to Planning Units that have been approved
Answer: CDEF
14. FNV Company allocates actual G&A expenses to specific lines of business based on planned
headcount in their annual strategic plan. Indicate the most appropriate calculation order to arrive at a
consolidated income statement. (SELECT THE BEST STATEMENT)
A. Aggregate/Consolidate database
B. Run allocation process
C. Calculate Salary & Benefits
D. Calculate Total Assets
E. Calculate Total Expenses
A. A,C,E,D,B
B. C,E,D,A,B
C. E,C,A,B
D. C,E,B,A
E. C,D,E,B,A
70-532 pdf Answer: D
15. When currency exchange rates are pushed to Essbase, they are initially stored at the following
intersections. (SELECT ONE)
A. Specified Members: Period, Year, Scenario, and HSP_Rates
Generation 1 Members: Entity, Version, Currency, and Other Custom Dimension
B. Specified Members: Period, Year, Scenario, and HSP_Rates
Level 0 Members: Entity, Version, Currency, and Other Custom Dimension
C. Generation 1 Members: Period, Year, Scenario, and HSP_Rates
Members: Entity, Version, Currency, and Other Custom Dimension
D. D. Level 1 Members: Period, Year, Scenario, and HSP_Rates
Specified Members: Entity, Version, Currency, and Other Custom Dimension
Answer: A
16. Which of the following features are advantages of business rules over calculation scripts? (SELECT
ALL THAT APPLY)
A. Run-time prompts
B. Run on save
C. Run on save with run-time prompts
D. Organize content into projects
E. Larger calculation function library
70-532 vce Answer: ACD
17. Your client has also requested the inclusion of several scenario dimension members to perform
favorable/unfavorable variance calculations. Which item(s) must be known prior to successfully writing
these calculations? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY) NOTE: Assume that every dimension has at least one
dynamically calculated member, and that a default calc has just been run on the database.
A. The dense/sparse configuration of the dimensions in the outline.
B. The order of the dimensions in the outline.
C. The dynamic two-pass calc status of members in the outline.
D. The stored dimension member formulas of members in the outline.
E. Which dimension is tagged as entities.
F. Whether or not the application is enabled for multiple currencies.
Answer: ABC
18. Your client has requested the inclusion of several reporting metrics and ratios, such as Gross
Margin %, Net Income %, and ROI. Assuming a Financial plan type only using the standard planning
dimensions, with Account and Period dense, and everything else sparse, the best-practice way to
implement these calculations is via .
A. calc scripts
B. business rules
C. stored member formulas
D. dynamic calc formulas
E. dynamic calc two-pass member formulas
70-532 exam Answer: E
19. SCENARIO: A Planning client wants to analyze budget vs. actual variances in a foreign currency
application. They want to isolate how much of the variance is attributable to the exchange rate variance
and how much of it is a budget variance – the budget vs. actual variance amount if there was no exchange
rate variance. The client already has Budget and Actual Scenarios and Budget and Actual Exchange Rate
Tables assigned to the related Scenarios.
What is the most efficient solution to report the total variance and its components?
NOTE: Additional scenarios, data, and/or exchange rate tables have been included in the potential
solutions.
A. TABLE 1:
B. TABLE 2:
C. TABLE 3:
D. TABLE 4:
E. TABLE 5:
70-532 dumps Answer: A
20. Company XYZ has stated that query and report response times are very important. All calculations will be run at a time when users are not accessing the application. Assume that Hire Status is an attribute dimension and the most queried dimension is Entity followed by Employee. To meet the required query and report delivery response times, which is the most appropriate outline order?
A. Entity, Employee, Year, Scenario, Version, Period, Account, Hire Status
B. Employee, Entity, Hire Status, Year, Scenario, Version, Period, Account
C. Entity, Employee, Account, Period, Year, Version, Scenario, Hire Status
D. Account, Period, Year, Scenario, Version, Entity, Employee, Hire Status
E. Account, Period, Entity, Employee, Year, Scenario, Version, Hire Status
F. Account, Period, Employee, Entity, Year, Scenario, Version, Hire Status
Answer: E

You can also get complete 70-532 dumps details about the Microsoft Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions exam and registration from the website of Microsoft https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-532.html dumps pdf question and answers.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/d_ClbxAWob8

Where can one get Notes for Citrix 1Y0-253 dumps? “Implementing Citrix NetScaler 10.5 for App and Desktop Solutions” is the name of Citrix 1Y0-253 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Citrix exam. Discount Citrix 1Y0-253 dumps pdf study guide free download Implementing Citrix NetScaler 10.5. Pass4itsure Citrix 1Y0-253 dumps exam questions answers are updated (186 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 1Y0-253 dumps is CCA-N.  The Citrix Networking certification does give us personally an advantage over the others, especially for https://www.pass4itsure.com/1y0-253.html exam based on Citrix NetScaler 10. I already had a job before going for Citrix certification, and I did my certification out of my busy job schedule.

Exam Code: 1Y0-253
Exam Name: Implementing Citrix NetScaler 10.5 for App and Desktop Solutions
Q&As: 186

: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWS1Z4S3dMVndSMEU

: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWVTN3Mm5VOFZCWVU

Share Some Citrix Specialist 1Y0-253 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 1
A Citrix Administrator needs to configure a single virtual server to accept TCP traffic on ports 80, 443 and
ports between 10000 and 19999.
Which protocol type should the administrator use to accomplish this task?
A. ANY
B. UDP
C. SSL_TCP
D. SSL_PUSH
1Y0-253 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which two pieces of information are required to create a virtual server? (Choose two.)
A. Port
B. Protocol
C. Subnet Mask
D. Gateway Address
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
Which two items are needed to import an SSL certificate? (Choose two.)
A. A public key
B. A private key
C. A root certificate
D. A server certificate
E. An intermediate certificate
1Y0-253 dumps Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4
Scenario: A company requires two-factor authentication using RSA tokens and Active Directory. The Citrix
Administrator configured the following two authentication policies with these parameters:
The policy named RSA_policy is used for RSA token authentication
The policy named AD_policy is used for Active Directory authentication
What should the administrator do to protect the NetScaler Gateway virtual server from an attack against
Active Directory?
A. Bind the RSA_policy in Primary Authentication Policies and bind the AD_policy in Secondary
Authentication Policies.
B. Bind the AD_policy in Primary Authentication Policies and bind the RSA_policy in Secondary
Authentication Policies.
C. Bind the AD_policy and the RSA_policy in Primary Authentication Policies and set the RSA_policy
priority higher than the AD_policy.
D. Bind the AD_policy and the RSA_policy in Primary Authentication Policies and set the AD_policy
priority higher than the RSA_policy.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Various users report that while accessing the Citrix NetScaler Gateway virtual server they get an error
message that the public SSL certificate is NOT trusted  Which three steps should a Citrix Administrator take on the NetScaler to resolve this issue? (Choose three.)
A. Import the root certificate.
B. Import the intermediate certificate.
C. Download the root certificate from the vendor.
D. Link the root certificate to the intermediate certificate.
E. Download the intermediate certificate from the vendor.
F. Link the intermediate certificate to the existing server certificate.
1Y0-253 pdf Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 6
A Citrix Administrator needs to configure NetScaler Gateway to communicate with the StoreFront providing
resources hosted on XenApp and XenDesktop.
Which IP address does the NetScaler use to route user connections to the StoreFront?
A. Subnet IP (SNIP)
B. NetScaler IP (NSIP)
C. User Source IP (USIP)
D. Client IP (CIP)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is implementing a NetScaler appliance for the first time. All clients will
connect from a public network and all servers will reside on a private network.
Which deployment mode should the administrator use to implement the NetScaler?
A. Layer 2 (L2) mode
B. Layer 3 (L3) mode
C. Two-arm deployment mode
D. MAC-based forwarding mode
1Y0-253 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which two IP addresses are required for a new NetScaler Gateway installation when using the First-Time
Setup Wizard? (Choose two.)
A. Client IP (CIP)
B. Virtual IP (VIP)
C. Subnet IP (SNIP)
D. NetScaler IP (NSIP)
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
Which IP address must be unique on each node in a high availability configuration?
A. Virtual IP (VIP)
B. Mapped IP (MIP)
C. Subnet IP (SNIP)
D. NetScaler IP (NSIP)
1Y0-253 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which component is required to allow users to launch Worx Home through a NetScaler Gateway?
A. App Controller
B. Citrix Receiver
C. Citrix StoreFront
D. NetScaler Gateway Plug-in
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Scenario: A company is considering using NetScaler appliances to load balance existing secured web
servers. The 1Y0-253 dumps company compliance policy does NOT allow any alterations of the SSL sessions between
clients and web servers.
Which option should a Citrix Administrator configure on the NetScaler virtual server to meet the needs of
the company?
A. SSL VPN
B. SSL Bridge
C. SSL Offload
D. SSL Renegotiation
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which two steps must a Citrix Administrator take to allow additional users to access resources using the
NetScaler Gateway Plug-in after the administrator installs the universal license on the NetScaler Gateway?
(Choose two.)
A. Set ICA Proxy to OFF.
B. Configure Citrix Receiver Home Page.
C. Change the authentication AAA settings.
D. Set Single Sign-on with Windows to OFF.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 13
Which two parameters are required for adding a new node to a cluster? (Choose two.)
A. Cluster IP of the new cluster node
B. NetScaler IP of the new cluster node
C. NetScaler IP of the existing cluster node
D. Remote NetScaler user name and password
E. Backplane interface of the existing cluster node
1Y0-253 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 14
Scenario: Users report that they are being presented with a certificate error when they attempt to access
the remote access website of the company. No changes were made to the NetScaler certificates recently.
What should the Citrix Administrator check on the NetScaler to identify this issue?
A. Cert Links
B. OCSP Binding
C. Certificate Format
D. Certificate Expiry Date
Correct Answer: D

My employer did pay for my certification. Am here sharing my experience about going through the Implementing Citrix NetScaler 10.5 for App and Desktop Solutions 1Y0-253 dumps certification. It would not make a lot of difference for the professionals who’re already working with Citrix https://www.pass4itsure.com/1y0-253.html dumps.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/EcTr16TPznw

How does Cisco 300-135 dumps exam answers work? “Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks” is the name of Cisco 300-135 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. New discount Cisco CCNP 300-135 dumps exam Routing and Switching will be more popular. Pass4itsure Cisco 300-135 dumps exam questions answers are updated (118 Q&As) are verified by experts.

The associated certifications of 300-135 dumps is CCNP Routing and Switching. Pass4itsure senior experts have developed CCNP Routing and Switching https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html dumps practice test pdf with their knowledge and experience, which have 95% similarity with the real exam.

Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWVjNzVmpXTDBzU00

: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0BwxjZr-ZDwwWNHFtR0VqbXVEeUU

Share Some Cisco Specialist 300-135 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION NO 14. For a default TeamSite installation on Windows to virtualize properly, which one of the following
statements about local groups is true?
A. Local groups must be created for each TeamSite role and user accounts added to the local group
accounts.
B. A local TeamSite group account must be manually created after installation.
C. Local groups must be created for grouptasks in TeamSite workflow.
D. Local groups must be created according to the configuration in submit.cfg.
E. No action needs to be taken concerning local groups.
300-135 exam Answer: E
17. In a default installation, which one of the following tasks is a TeamSite user with the “Editor” role
UNABLE to perform?
A. Create a workarea.
B. Create an edition.
C. Merge two conflicting files.
D. Submit files to the Staging area.
E. Remove a job.
Answer:A
QUESTION NO 15. The customer wants two types of product descriptions. One is for public external view and includes
basic product information. The other is for private internal use and contains sales pricing guidelines and
strategies. The customer is very concerned that the public data be exactly the same on both types of
documents and also wants them to look as much alike as possible. Based on the above scenario, which
one of the following is the right approach?
A. Use one data capture template that gathers all the information and two presentation templates–one for
external and one for internal page generation.
B. Use a personalization server to format the document on the fly when the user logs in.
C. Use one data capture template and one presentation template that includes a component template that
only displays the private information to internal users based on their user IDs.
D. Use two data capture templates–one for external and one for internal page generation and a single
presentation template.
E. Use two completely different template data types–one for external and one for internal page generation,
each with its own data capture template and presentation template.
300-135 dumps Answer:A
QUESTION NO 17. Your customer puts most of its content in a directory called htdocs and all of its links are relative to
that directory. The customer also puts some commonly used images in a directory called “common/”,
which is at the same level as “htdocs/”, not under it. The customer sets up a virtual directory to support
this on its production Web server and wants to support this in a virtualized workarea. What proxy
configuration do you need in order to support the above scenario?
A. _docroot=htdocs /common=/common
B. _docroot=htdocs /common=/htdocs/common
C. docroot=htdocs /common=/common
D. docroot=/ /htdocs=/htdocs /common=/common
E. _docroot=/ /htdocs=/htdocs /common=/common
Answer:A
QUESTION NO 18. Why does a proper content management solution take into account employees at all levels in the
client company, including content contributors, content administrators, production managers, and
executives?
A. It is recommended practice to implement content management with minimal executive involvement.
This is the most pragmatic path to satisfying the majority of the employees.
B. Since all the employees want to continue to use the best possible tools, a content management
solution that uses an open architecture satisfies all the employees.
C. It is recommended practice to implement content management with little or no change to existing
processes. The resulting solution satisfies all the employees.
D. A proper content management solution balances the needs of all the employees in the company.
E. An optimal content management solution can be implemented by the content administrators working
together with the production managers to build a prototype.
300-135 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 19
Which traits should a Help Desk manager look for an analyst to determine if the analyst can
effectively multitask?
A. handles stress andprioritize
B. takes the initiative and is creative
C. takes chances and switches topics
D. changes perspectives often and is self sufficient
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 20
How can you pursue continuous learning to stay current with industry standards? (Choose two)
A. create an individual development plan
B. conduct monthly performance reviews
C. volunteer for projects that require you toleam new information
D. communicate a need for change by providing a compelling business rationale
300-135 vce Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 21
External outsourcing by a third party is the preferred method of support in which situation?
A. Your support organization supports a number of proprietary applications and has significant
security restrictions.
B. Your support organization is going through a rollout of new desktops and you anticipate that
you may need to increase your staff from 20 to 25 for a three-month period.
C. Your support organization would like to transfer support responsibility to an outside
organization. Management requires that all support be performed on the premises.
D. Your support organization supports a large number of remote desktops using standard office
software that requires 24-hour service information Technology priorities do not allow management
time to focus on support issues.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 22
If individual performance problems continue for an extended time, the Help Desk manager may
need to resort to positive discipline. Positive discipline places responsibility for appropriate
performance on the
A. manager
B. employee
C. employee’s colleagues
D. Human Resources Director
300-135 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 23
What are three common problems when supporting global customers? (Choose three)
A. Problems are not communicated clearly.
B. Global network downtime occurs frequently.
C. Service expectations vary from country to country.
D. Different technologies are found in different countries.
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 24
How can you motivate others to seek guidance?
A. emphasize changing behaviors rather than people
B. provide incentives that are challenging yet attainable
C. use personal visits as an opportunity for employee feedback, support, and mentoring
D. Evaluate performance of team members and provide support to facilitate optimum performance
300-135 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 25
To which three types of data do companies restrict access? (Choose three)
A. network shares
B. personnel records
C. payroll information
D. proprietary information
Answer: B,C,D

I believe that you will be very confident of our products. If you choose to use Pass4itsure CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 dumps, Pass4itsure can help you 100% pass your first time to attend Cisco certification https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-135.html exam.

Read More Youtube:https://youtu.be/K2S9iwgc3BY