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[New Updated Questions] New Updated Cisco 642-385 Dumps Exam Questions 100% Pass With A High Score Youtube Training

Fastest Way to Certify Cisco 642-385 dumps? “Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers” is the name of Cisco 642-385 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. New updated Cisco 642-385 dumps exam questions 100% pass with a high score Youtube training. Pass4itsure Cisco 642-385 dumps exam questions answers are updated (81 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 642-385
Exam Name: Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers
Q&As: 81

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642-385 dumps

Share Some Cisco Specialist 642-385 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 1
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement
642-385 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical
project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment
642-385 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
A. Communication models.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational communications,
D. Organizational cultures and styles.
642-385 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis
are examples of which tool or technique?
A. Expert judgment

B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning
642-385 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Collect Requirements
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project
objectives?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
642-385 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing,
managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
A. Plan Schedule Management.
B. Develop Project Charter.
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Plan Scope Management.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur
during the project?
A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Expert judgment
D. Change requests

642-385 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
A. The project charter.
B. The stakeholder analysis.
C. A communication management plan.
D. A stakeholder register.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
A. Cost estimates.
B. Resource calendars,
C. The project charter,
D. The risk register.
642-385 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual
performance is:
A. Product analysis.
B. Variance analysis.
C. Document analysis,
D. Decomposition.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting
relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:
A. Develop Project Team.
B. Manage Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team.
D. Plan Human Resource Management.
642-385 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often
involves physical limitations?
A. Mandatory
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. External
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is
completed and that the project has met its objectives?

A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Control Scope
642-385 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
A. Work performance reports.
B. Change requests.
C. Activity resource requirements.
D. Enterprise environmental factors.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Purchase order
C. Source selection criteria
D. Bidder conference
642-385 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an
example of which type of communication?
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Push
D. Pull
642-385 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:
A. Performance measurement baseline.
B. Analysis of project forecasts,
C. Summary of changes approved in a period,
D. Analysis of past performance.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a
life cycle that is:
A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Incremental
D. Iterative
642-385 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is
$150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?
A. 0.50
B. 0.67
C. 1.50
D. 2.00
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?
A. Schedule data
B. Activity list
C. Risk register
D. Scope baseline
642-385 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?
A. Interactive communication
B. Claims administration
C. Conflict management
D. Performance reporting
642-385 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any
decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?
A. Interrelationship digraphs
B. Tree diagram
C. Affinity diagram
D. Network diagram
Correct Answer: B

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Cisco

[New Updated Questions] Real Latest Cisco IINS 210-260 Dumps Practice Test With High Quality Youtube Learing— Real Exam Model and Comprehensible Interface

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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210-260 dumps

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QUESTION 51
Click on the exhibit button below.
Given the configuration shown, how much of a link’s 100Mbps reservable bandwidth can an LSP access when configured for class-type 0 and priority 1?
A. 10Mbps
B. 20Mbps
C. 30Mpbs
D. 60Mbps
E. 70Mbps
210-260 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 52
Which of the following statements is true of an established LDP session?
A. It uses a UDP connection with an arbitrary port number.
B. It uses a UDP connection with well known port number 646.
C. It uses a TCP connection with an arbitrary port number.
D. It uses a TCP connection with well known port number 646.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
Click on the exhibit button below.
Which fields in this output uniquely identify the RSVP session belonging to a single LSP? (Choose three)
A. Tunnel ID
B. Name
C. LSP ID
D. To
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 54
How many bits of the MPLS header are used for the label field?
A. 16
B. 20
C. 24
D. 25
E. 32
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Which of the following best describes constraint-based routing?
A. A mechanism that implements opaque LSAs.
B. A mechanism that computes routes based on defined user requirements.
C. A mechanism that allows the IGP shortest path to be used.
D. A mechanism that allows RSVP or LDP signaling to use a route other than the IGP best route to establish a LSP.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
A targeted-LDP session may exist between directly connected or non-directly connected devices
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 57
On a point-to-point link, two directly connected routers set different interface hello timeout values. Router R1 uses 15 seconds, while router R2 uses 30 seconds. What happens to the LDP adjacency?
A. The adjacency forms with the lower timeout value
B. The “show router Idp session” command output displays the adjacency in state “init”
C. The adjacency forms with the higher timeout value
D. The adjacency times out after 30 seconds
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 58
Router R4 originates 500 RSVP signaled LSPs with default hello and refresh timer settings If the only downstream communication fails (link is operationally UP), how long will RSVP wait before it declares the RSVP sessions down?
A. 3000ms
B. 9000ms
C. 30000ms
D. 120000ms
210-260 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
Click on the exhibit button below.
LSP “toR8-5” requests fast reroute protection on the primary loose path. What could be done to remove the Failure Code shown?
A. CSPF must be enabled at head-end on fast reroute protected loose path LSPs
B. Fast reroute must first be enabled on the downstream routers.
C. CSPF must be enabled on all downstream loose hop routers.
D. Global revertive path optimization must be enabled so the path will be re-optimized around a failed node.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Click on the exhibit button below.
If the four LSPs shown use the shared-explicit reservation style, how much bandwidth does CSPF request across a single 1Gbps link?
A. 100Mbps
B. 200Mbps
C. 300Mpbs
D. 600Mbps
E. 700Mbps
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 61
Which of the following statements regarding the MPLS SWAP label operation is true?
A. The inner label will be exchanged with the MPLS outer label.
B. The inner label will be exchanged for a new label.
C. The outer label will be exchanged for a new label.
D. All labels will be exchanged for one new label.
E. All labels will be exchanged for an equal number of new labels.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
If the destination IP address of a received unlabeled packet is successfully matched in the FIB, which of  the following statements are true? Choose two answers.
A. A PUSH label stack operation must be performed.
B. The outgoing interface and next-hop address will be determined from the FIB.
C. The packet can be forwarded as a labeled or unlabeled packet.
D. A POP label stack operation may be performed.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 63
Which of the following devices receives labeled packets from the MPLS domain, removes the MPLS header, and forwards unlabeled packets outside the MPLS domain?
A. P router
B. LSR
C. eLER
D. iLER
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
Which of the following statements are true? Choose two answers
A. Selected labels from the FIB are populated to the LIB.
B. Selected labels from the LIB are populated to the LFIB.
C. Selected routes from the RIB are populated to the FIB.
D. Selected routes from the FIB are populated to the RIB.
E. All labels from the LIB are populated to the LFIB.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 65
When a device receives a labeled packet, which of the following can occur?
A. The packet can only be forwarded as an unlabeled packet.
B. The packet can be forwarded as a labeled or unlabeled packet, depending on the received label value.
C. The packet can be forwarded as a labeled or unlabeled packet, depending on the destination IP address in the payload
D. The packet can only be forwarded as a labeled packet.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: B

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Office 365 Project Portfolio Management

[New Updated Questions] Best Quality Microsoft Beta 70-348 Dumps Exam Office 365 Project Portfolio Management Study Guide Youtube Online

Where can I get the valid Microsoft 70-348 dumps exam questions for passing? “Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM (beta)” is the name of Microsoft 70-348 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Best quality Microsoft Beta 70-348 dumps exam Office 365 Project Portfolio Management study guide youtube online. Pass4itsure Microsoft 70-348 dumps exam questions answers are updated (48 Q&As) are verified by experts.

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Exam Code: 70-348
Exam Name: Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM (beta)
Q&As: 48

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70-348 dumps

Share Some Microsoft Specialist 70-348 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION: 21
Which three If-Then-Else control structure formulas in Crystal syntax will generate an error? (Choose three.)
A. If {Orders.Order Amount} < 100 Then”Under $100″ElseIs {Orders.Order Amount} in 100 to 200 Then “Between $100 and $200”
B. If {Orders.order Amount} < 1000 Then “Low” Else “High”
C. If {Orders.Order Amount} < 100 Then formula = “Under $100” ElseIf {Orders.Order Amount} in 100 to 200 Then formula = “Between $100 and $200” EndIf
D. If {Orders.Order Amount} < 200 ThenUnder $200 ElseIf {Orders.Order Amount} in 200 to 300 Then Between $200 and $300
70-348 exam Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 22
Which two methods can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report? (Choose two.)
A. Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the Context menu.
B. Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
C. Open the Section Expert and click the Insert button.
D. Click the field name and click the Insert to Report icon at the top of the Field Explorer. Drag the field to the desired position and left-click to insert.
Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 23
You are designing a Crystal report that summarizes customer orders by country, then by state, then by city and by customer ID. You want the report to print each country on a new page. Thefirst page should display a bar chart showing Total Sales by Country group in the
Report Header and as much of the first country as can be displayed. The last page should show the summary for the last country and the grand total for the entire report. Which step can you perform in the Section Expert to achieve the design goal?
A. Set New Page After on for Group Footer #1

B. Conditionally format the New Page After property for Group Footer #1 using the formula “not onlastrecord”
C. Format the New Page After property for Group Header #1 using the formula “not onlastrecord”
D. Set New Page After on for the Report Header section
70-348 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 24
You want to create a formula using the Formula Workshop. You begin by right-clicking Formula Fields in the Field Explorer and then click the New button. What happens after you click the New button?
A. You must select the type of formula and click OK.
B. The Formula Workshop opens with the Formula Editor inactive.
C. You must enter a formula name and click OK.
D. The Formula Workshop opens with the Formula Editor active.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 25
Which three options are provided for web pagination? (Choose three.)
A. Navigation controls
B. Page breaking controls
C. Conditional Page Margin controls
D. Portrait versus Landscape controls
70-348 pdf Answer: B, C, D
QUESTION: 26
What are three Crystal Reports 2008 viewer features? (Choose three.)
A. Docked/Stationary Toolbar
B. Export to Microsoft PowerPoint
C. Java DHTML Viewer Exporting
D. Independent Group Tree Scrolling

Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 27
How must you register multiple XML export formats in Crystal Reports 2008?
A. Configure XML export formats using the Define XML dialog.
B. Configure XML export formats using the Manage XML dialog.
C. Add XML export formats using the Manage XML Exporting Formats dialog.
D. Add XML export formats using the Define XML Exporting Formats dialog.
70-348 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 28
You have created a report with a parameter but the parameter value is not always required.
Which method should you use?
A. Set Editable to True
B. Set Null Values to True
C. Set Custom Values to True
D. Set Optional Prompt to True
Answer: D
QUESTION: 29
Which two reasons explain why the Group Sort Expert is disabled when you attempt to create a Top N report? (Choose two.)
A. You are in Design view.
B. The data was not refreshed.
C. You are in a Drill Down view.
D. The report is missing a summary value.
70-348 exam Answer: C, D
QUESTION: 30
You make changes to the record selection criteria in a Crystal report. In which two circumstances should you choose the Refresh Data option rather than the Use Saved Data option? (Choose two.)

A. When up-to-the-minute, current information must be displayed on the report.
B. When adding one or more selection criteria.
C. When it is important to avoid time delays caused by network traffic during database server connects.
D. When removing one or more existing selection criteria.
Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 31
Which Crystal Reports feature can you use to limit the number of records included in a report?
A. SQL Expression
B. Formula Workshop
C. Preview Sample
D. Record Selection Formula
70-348 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 32
The database structure is changed to include a Products table. Which tool would you use to add the Products table to the Customer Sales report?
A. Field Explorer
B. Select Expert
C. Report Explorer
D. Database Expert
Answer: D
QUESTION: 33
You create a new Crystal report and group the report by the customer name and then by country. The tables in your database have a one-to-many linking relationship. Because of the linking relationship, field values from the primary table are repeated for each new field value causingdouble counting in the lookup table. Which two methods can you use to create accurate summaries? (Choose two.)
A. Use Dynamic Summarized Fields Expert.
B. Use Running Total Expert.
C. Create conditional grouping formulas.

D. Create manual running totals.
70-348 pdf Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 34
What can Crystal Reports developers use to add application-specific toolbars to the Report
Designer?
A. Add-Ins
B. WorkBench
C. Report Options
D. Insert Toolbars
Answer: A

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Microsoft

[New Updated Questions] Prepare for the Real Microsoft 70-532 Dumps Exam Video Test For Download Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions

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Exam Code: 70-532
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
Q&As: 188

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70-532 dumps
Share Some Microsoft Specialist 70-532 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:
9.You need to configure storage for the solution. What should you do? To answer, drag the appropriate XML segments to the correct locations. Each XML segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-532 dumps

70-532 dumps
10.You need to configure scaling for the plagiarism detection service.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate values in the dialog box in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-532 dumps

70-532 exam Correct Answer:
70-532 dumps
11.Users report that after periods of inactivity the website is slow to render pages and to process sign-in attempts. You need to ensure that the website is always responsive. What should you do?
A. Add the following markup at line WC14:
<sessionState timeout-“86400” />

B. Add the following markup at line WC08:
<add key=”timeout” value=”null” />
C. Add the following markup at line WC14:
<sessionState timeout=”fl” />
D. In the Azure management portal, enable Always On support for the website.
E. In the Azure management portal, disable Always On support for the website.
Correct Answer: A
12.You need to implement the worker role to support the real-time continuous data-collection service. How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
70-532 dumps

70-532 dumps

70-532 dumps Correct Answer:
70-532 dumps

13. Which statement(s) is/are correct regarding the administrative Copy Data feature available in the
Planning Web? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
A. Data can be copied between versions only, for select scenarios
B. Data can be copied between scenarios only, for selected versions
C. Data can be copied between any dimensional intersection, assuming all dimensions and members are
present in the selected plan types
D. Cell Text is copied
E. Account Annotations are copied
F. Supporting detail is copied
G. Planning Unit Annotations are copied
H. You are prevented from copying to Planning Units that have been approved
Answer: CDEF
14. FNV Company allocates actual G&A expenses to specific lines of business based on planned
headcount in their annual strategic plan. Indicate the most appropriate calculation order to arrive at a
consolidated income statement. (SELECT THE BEST STATEMENT)
A. Aggregate/Consolidate database
B. Run allocation process
C. Calculate Salary & Benefits
D. Calculate Total Assets
E. Calculate Total Expenses
A. A,C,E,D,B

B. C,E,D,A,B
C. E,C,A,B
D. C,E,B,A
E. C,D,E,B,A
70-532 pdf Answer: D
15. When currency exchange rates are pushed to Essbase, they are initially stored at the following
intersections. (SELECT ONE)
A. Specified Members: Period, Year, Scenario, and HSP_Rates
Generation 1 Members: Entity, Version, Currency, and Other Custom Dimension
B. Specified Members: Period, Year, Scenario, and HSP_Rates
Level 0 Members: Entity, Version, Currency, and Other Custom Dimension
C. Generation 1 Members: Period, Year, Scenario, and HSP_Rates
Members: Entity, Version, Currency, and Other Custom Dimension
D. D. Level 1 Members: Period, Year, Scenario, and HSP_Rates
Specified Members: Entity, Version, Currency, and Other Custom Dimension
Answer: A
16. Which of the following features are advantages of business rules over calculation scripts? (SELECT
ALL THAT APPLY)
A. Run-time prompts
B. Run on save
C. Run on save with run-time prompts
D. Organize content into projects
E. Larger calculation function library
70-532 vce Answer: ACD
17. Your client has also requested the inclusion of several scenario dimension members to perform
favorable/unfavorable variance calculations. Which item(s) must be known prior to successfully writing
these calculations? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY) NOTE: Assume that every dimension has at least one
dynamically calculated member, and that a default calc has just been run on the database.
A. The dense/sparse configuration of the dimensions in the outline.
B. The order of the dimensions in the outline.
C. The dynamic two-pass calc status of members in the outline.
D. The stored dimension member formulas of members in the outline.
E. Which dimension is tagged as entities.
F. Whether or not the application is enabled for multiple currencies.

Answer: ABC
18. Your client has requested the inclusion of several reporting metrics and ratios, such as Gross
Margin %, Net Income %, and ROI. Assuming a Financial plan type only using the standard planning
dimensions, with Account and Period dense, and everything else sparse, the best-practice way to
implement these calculations is via .
A. calc scripts
B. business rules
C. stored member formulas
D. dynamic calc formulas
E. dynamic calc two-pass member formulas
70-532 exam Answer: E
19. SCENARIO: A Planning client wants to analyze budget vs. actual variances in a foreign currency
application. They want to isolate how much of the variance is attributable to the exchange rate variance
and how much of it is a budget variance – the budget vs. actual variance amount if there was no exchange
rate variance. The client already has Budget and Actual Scenarios and Budget and Actual Exchange Rate
Tables assigned to the related Scenarios.
What is the most efficient solution to report the total variance and its components?
NOTE: Additional scenarios, data, and/or exchange rate tables have been included in the potential
solutions.

A. TABLE 1:
B. TABLE 2:
C. TABLE 3:
D. TABLE 4:
E. TABLE 5:
70-532 dumps Answer: A
20. Company XYZ has stated that query and report response times are very important. All calculations will be run at a time when users are not accessing the application. Assume that Hire Status is an attribute dimension and the most queried dimension is Entity followed by Employee. To meet the required query and report delivery response times, which is the most appropriate outline order?

A. Entity, Employee, Year, Scenario, Version, Period, Account, Hire Status
B. Employee, Entity, Hire Status, Year, Scenario, Version, Period, Account
C. Entity, Employee, Account, Period, Year, Version, Scenario, Hire Status
D. Account, Period, Year, Scenario, Version, Entity, Employee, Hire Status
E. Account, Period, Entity, Employee, Year, Scenario, Version, Hire Status
F. Account, Period, Employee, Entity, Year, Scenario, Version, Hire Status
Answer: E

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Citrix

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Exam Code: 1Y0-253
Exam Name: Implementing Citrix NetScaler 10.5 for App and Desktop Solutions
Q&As: 186

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QUESTION 1
A Citrix Administrator needs to configure a single virtual server to accept TCP traffic on ports 80, 443 and
ports between 10000 and 19999.
Which protocol type should the administrator use to accomplish this task?
A. ANY
B. UDP
C. SSL_TCP
D. SSL_PUSH
1Y0-253 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which two pieces of information are required to create a virtual server? (Choose two.)
A. Port
B. Protocol
C. Subnet Mask
D. Gateway Address
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
Which two items are needed to import an SSL certificate? (Choose two.)
A. A public key
B. A private key
C. A root certificate
D. A server certificate
E. An intermediate certificate
1Y0-253 dumps Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4
Scenario: A company requires two-factor authentication using RSA tokens and Active Directory. The Citrix
Administrator configured the following two authentication policies with these parameters:
The policy named RSA_policy is used for RSA token authentication
The policy named AD_policy is used for Active Directory authentication
What should the administrator do to protect the NetScaler Gateway virtual server from an attack against
Active Directory?
A. Bind the RSA_policy in Primary Authentication Policies and bind the AD_policy in Secondary
Authentication Policies.
B. Bind the AD_policy in Primary Authentication Policies and bind the RSA_policy in Secondary
Authentication Policies.
C. Bind the AD_policy and the RSA_policy in Primary Authentication Policies and set the RSA_policy
priority higher than the AD_policy.
D. Bind the AD_policy and the RSA_policy in Primary Authentication Policies and set the AD_policy
priority higher than the RSA_policy.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Various users report that while accessing the Citrix NetScaler Gateway virtual server they get an error
message that the public SSL certificate is NOT trusted
  Which three steps should a Citrix Administrator take on the NetScaler to resolve this issue? (Choose three.)
A. Import the root certificate.
B. Import the intermediate certificate.
C. Download the root certificate from the vendor.
D. Link the root certificate to the intermediate certificate.
E. Download the intermediate certificate from the vendor.
F. Link the intermediate certificate to the existing server certificate.
1Y0-253 pdf Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 6
A Citrix Administrator needs to configure NetScaler Gateway to communicate with the StoreFront providing
resources hosted on XenApp and XenDesktop.
Which IP address does the NetScaler use to route user connections to the StoreFront?
A. Subnet IP (SNIP)
B. NetScaler IP (NSIP)
C. User Source IP (USIP)
D. Client IP (CIP)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is implementing a NetScaler appliance for the first time. All clients will
connect from a public network and all servers will reside on a private network.
Which deployment mode should the administrator use to implement the NetScaler?
A. Layer 2 (L2) mode
B. Layer 3 (L3) mode
C. Two-arm deployment mode
D. MAC-based forwarding mode
1Y0-253 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which two IP addresses are required for a new NetScaler Gateway installation when using the First-Time
Setup Wizard? (Choose two.)
A. Client IP (CIP)
B. Virtual IP (VIP)
C. Subnet IP (SNIP)
D. NetScaler IP (NSIP)
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
Which IP address must be unique on each node in a high availability configuration?
A. Virtual IP (VIP)
B. Mapped IP (MIP)
C. Subnet IP (SNIP)
D. NetScaler IP (NSIP)

1Y0-253 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which component is required to allow users to launch Worx Home through a NetScaler Gateway?
A. App Controller
B. Citrix Receiver
C. Citrix StoreFront
D. NetScaler Gateway Plug-in
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Scenario: A company is considering using NetScaler appliances to load balance existing secured web
servers. The 1Y0-253 dumps company compliance policy does NOT allow any alterations of the SSL sessions between
clients and web servers.
Which option should a Citrix Administrator configure on the NetScaler virtual server to meet the needs of
the company?
A. SSL VPN
B. SSL Bridge
C. SSL Offload
D. SSL Renegotiation
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Which two steps must a Citrix Administrator take to allow additional users to access resources using the
NetScaler Gateway Plug-in after the administrator installs the universal license on the NetScaler Gateway?
(Choose two.)
A. Set ICA Proxy to OFF.
B. Configure Citrix Receiver Home Page.
C. Change the authentication AAA settings.
D. Set Single Sign-on with Windows to OFF.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 13
Which two parameters are required for adding a new node to a cluster? (Choose two.)
A. Cluster IP of the new cluster node
B. NetScaler IP of the new cluster node
C. NetScaler IP of the existing cluster node
D. Remote NetScaler user name and password
E. Backplane interface of the existing cluster node
1Y0-253 pdf Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 14
Scenario: Users report that they are being presented with a certificate error when they attempt to access
the remote access website of the company. No changes were made to the NetScaler certificates recently.
What should the Citrix Administrator check on the NetScaler to identify this issue?
A. Cert Links
B. OCSP Binding

C. Certificate Format
D. Certificate Expiry Date
Correct Answer: D

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Cisco

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION NO 14. For a default TeamSite installation on Windows to virtualize properly, which one of the following
statements about local groups is true?
A. Local groups must be created for each TeamSite role and user accounts added to the local group
accounts.
B. A local TeamSite group account must be manually created after installation.
C. Local groups must be created for grouptasks in TeamSite workflow.
D. Local groups must be created according to the configuration in submit.cfg.
E. No action needs to be taken concerning local groups.
300-135 exam Answer: E
17. In a default installation, which one of the following tasks is a TeamSite user with the “Editor” role
UNABLE to perform?
A. Create a workarea.
B. Create an edition.
C. Merge two conflicting files.
D. Submit files to the Staging area.
E. Remove a job.
Answer:A
QUESTION NO 15. The customer wants two types of product descriptions. One is for public external view and includes
basic product information. The other is for private internal use and contains sales pricing guidelines and
strategies. The customer is very concerned that the public data be exactly the same on both types of
documents and also wants them to look as much alike as possible. Based on the above scenario, which
one of the following is the right approach?
A. Use one data capture template that gathers all the information and two presentation templates–one for
external and one for internal page generation.
B. Use a personalization server to format the document on the fly when the user logs in.
C. Use one data capture template and one presentation template that includes a component template that
only displays the private information to internal users based on their user IDs.
D. Use two data capture templates–one for external and one for internal page generation and a single
presentation template.

E. Use two completely different template data types–one for external and one for internal page generation,
each with its own data capture template and presentation template.
300-135 dumps Answer:A
QUESTION NO 17. Your customer puts most of its content in a directory called htdocs and all of its links are relative to
that directory. The customer also puts some commonly used images in a directory called “common/”,
which is at the same level as “htdocs/”, not under it. The customer sets up a virtual directory to support
this on its production Web server and wants to support this in a virtualized workarea. What proxy
configuration do you need in order to support the above scenario?
A. _docroot=htdocs /common=/common
B. _docroot=htdocs /common=/htdocs/common
C. docroot=htdocs /common=/common
D. docroot=/ /htdocs=/htdocs /common=/common
E. _docroot=/ /htdocs=/htdocs /common=/common
Answer:A
QUESTION NO 18. Why does a proper content management solution take into account employees at all levels in the
client company, including content contributors, content administrators, production managers, and
executives?
A. It is recommended practice to implement content management with minimal executive involvement.
This is the most pragmatic path to satisfying the majority of the employees.
B. Since all the employees want to continue to use the best possible tools, a content management
solution that uses an open architecture satisfies all the employees.
C. It is recommended practice to implement content management with little or no change to existing
processes. The resulting solution satisfies all the employees.
D. A proper content management solution balances the needs of all the employees in the company.
E. An optimal content management solution can be implemented by the content administrators working
together with the production managers to build a prototype.
300-135 pdf Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 19
Which traits should a Help Desk manager look for an analyst to determine if the analyst can
effectively multitask?
A. handles stress andprioritize
B. takes the initiative and is creative
C. takes chances and switches topics
D. changes perspectives often and is self sufficient
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 20
How can you pursue continuous learning to stay current with industry standards? (Choose two)
A. create an individual development plan
B. conduct monthly performance reviews
C. volunteer for projects that require you toleam new information
D. communicate a need for change by providing a compelling business rationale
300-135 vce 
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 21
External outsourcing by a third party is the preferred method of support in which situation?
A. Your support organization supports a number of proprietary applications and has significant
security restrictions.
B. Your support organization is going through a rollout of new desktops and you anticipate that
you may need to increase your staff from 20 to 25 for a three-month period.
C. Your support organization would like to transfer support responsibility to an outside
organization. Management requires that all support be performed on the premises.
D. Your support organization supports a large number of remote desktops using standard office
software that requires 24-hour service information Technology priorities do not allow management
time to focus on support issues.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 22
If individual performance problems continue for an extended time, the Help Desk manager may
need to resort to positive discipline. Positive discipline places responsibility for appropriate
performance on the
A. manager
B. employee
C. employee’s colleagues
D. Human Resources Director
300-135 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 23
What are three common problems when supporting global customers? (Choose three)
A. Problems are not communicated clearly.
B. Global network downtime occurs frequently.
C. Service expectations vary from country to country.
D. Different technologies are found in different countries.
Answer: A,C,D
QUESTION NO: 24
How can you motivate others to seek guidance?
A. emphasize changing behaviors rather than people
B. provide incentives that are challenging yet attainable
C. use personal visits as an opportunity for employee feedback, support, and mentoring
D. Evaluate performance of team members and provide support to facilitate optimum performance
300-135 dumps 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 25
To which three types of data do companies restrict access? (Choose three)
A. network shares
B. personnel records
C. payroll information
D. proprietary information
Answer: B,C,D

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Windows Server 2012

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Exam Code: 70-417
Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 427

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QUESTION 5
Your network contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012. Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed.Server1 hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. Server1 is configured as shown in the following table.

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VM2 sends and receives large amounts of data over the network.
You need to ensure that the network traffic of VM2 bypasses the virtual switches of the parent partition.
What should you configure?
A. NUMA topology
B. Resource control
C. Resource metering
D. Virtual Machine Chimney
E. The VLAN ID
F. Processor Compatibility
G. The startup order
H. Automatic Start Action
I. Integration Services
J. Port mirroring
K. Single-root I/O virtualization
70-417 exam 
Correct Answer: K
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Single-root I/O virtualization -capable network adapters can be assigned directly to a virtual machine to maximize network throughput while minimizing network latency and the CPU overhead required for 
processing network traffic.
References:
Exam Ref 70-410, Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3: Configure Hyper-V, Objective 3.1: Create and Configure virtual machine settings, p. 144 Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter 7: Hyper-V Virtualization, Lesson 2: Deploying and configuring virtual machines, p. 335
QUESTION 6
You perform a Server Core Installation of Windows Server 2012 R2 on a server named Server1.
You need to add a graphical user interface (GUI) to Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. The imagex.exe command
B. The ocsetup.exe command
C. The setup.exe command
D. The dism.exe command

Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The DISM command is called by the Add-WindowsFeature command. Here is the systax for DISM:
Dism /online /enable-feature /featurename:ServerCore-FullServer /featurename:Server- Gui- Shell /
featurename:Server-Gui-Mgmt

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QUESTION 7
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You plan to create an image of Server1.
You need to remove the source files for all server roles that are not installed on Server1.
Which tool should you use?
A. dism.exe
B. servermanagercmd.exe
C. ocsetup.exe
D. imagex.exe
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Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Dism utility can be used to create and mount an image of Server1.
References:
Exam Ref 70-410: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012: Chapter 1: Installing and Configuring
Servers, p. 19-22
QUESTION 8
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has following storage
spaces:
Data
Users
Backups
Primordial
You add an additional hard disk to Server1.
You need to identify which storage space contains the new hard disk.
Which storage space contains the new disk?
A. Primordial
B. Data
C. Backups
D. Users
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
New Disks (Unallocated space) added to Primordial space.
References:
QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2012.
You create a group Managed Service Account named gservice1.
You need to configure a service named Service1 to run as the gservice1 account.
How should you configure Service1?
A. From a command prompt, run ss.exe and specify the config parameter.
B. From a command prompt, run ss.exe and specify the sdset parameter.
C. From the Services console, configure the General settings.
D. From Windows PowerShell, run Set-Service and specify the -PassThrough parameter.
70-417 pdf 
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Services are often run with default settings — for example, a service might be disabled automatically at
startup. You can use the Services snap-in to change the default settings for a service.
* To configure how a service is started using the Windows interface
1. ClickStart , click in theStart Search box, typeservices.msc , and then press ENTER.
2. Optionally, export and save a list of the existing settings. To do this, right-clickServices , selectExport
List , and save the settings list.
3. In the details pane, right-click the service that you want to configure, and then clickProperties .
4. On theGeneral tab, inStartup type , clickAutomatic ,Manual ,Disabled , orAutomatic (Delayed Start) .
5. To specify the user account that the service can use to log on, click theLog On tab, and then do one of
the following:

QUESTION: 10
Marion has been hired by a small business to determine why its Web site does
not attract users. As Marion interviews different members of the company, she
learns that when the site was first created, the external Web developer did
not produce any documents specifying the basic requirements for the site.
As a result, the site did not have a defined purpose and was not designed for the
company’s audience. Additionally, the site navigation did not make sense from
a user’s point of view. Marion considers this information, then she recommends
that the company create which document?
A. Wireframe
B. Storyboard
C. Marketing slideshow
D. Non-disclosure agreement
Answer: B
QUESTION: 11
Andrea works as an Administrative Assistant for a small business that uses an
SaaS service for accounting, sales orders and customer service information
about the business’s customers. This product is similar to Salesforce.com and
its competitors. Andrea makes sure she saves accurate records about current
projects and performs regular backups of the business data stored on the cloud
based service. Which of the following is the primary reason for this practice?
A. If there is an interruption in Internet access, the service and records would
not be accessible.
B. There is a limit on the number of users who are allowed to access the cloud
based service at any one time.
C. Data stored online through the cloud-based service is more at risk to security
breaches than if it were stored locally.

D. Andrea is overly cautious because it is well known that cloud-based services
are highly secure, highly reliable and always available.
70-417 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 12
You just started a small business and need to create a logo. Although you are
technically savvy, your artistic creativity is limited. You decide to launch a
contest to seek creative ideas for your logo. Using the Internet and social
networking in this manner is known as:
A. folksonomy
B. outsourcing
C. crowd sourcing
D. social engineering
Answer: C
QUESTION: 13
Which term describes a compact personal computer that relies on a touch
screen for in put, generally uses a solid-state drive instead of a traditional hard
disk, and relies on wireless or mobile networks for connectivity?
A. Tablet B.
Laptop C.
Netbook
D. Portable media player
70-417 exam Answer: A
QUESTION: 14
Sam is a professor at a small college. Due to a scheduling conflict, he was
unable to obtain access to the computer lab to give the final exam. As an
alternative, he asked students to bring their own devices (BYOD) and connect
to the college’s Wi-Fi for network access. What security risk is
associated with this implementation?

A. Inability for students to share files
B. Inability for students to back up user files
C. Student devices sending unsecured data
D. Student devices being more susceptible to malware
Answer: C

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Microsoft

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Exam Code: 70-764
Exam Name: Administering a SQL Database Infrastructure
Q&As: 112

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QUESTION 9
A SOAP-based Web service is essentially: Select the correct answer.
A. solution logic that can only be accessed via HTTP methods
B. solution logic accessible via binary RPC protocols
C. solution logic that has been shaped by service-orientation design principles
D. solution logic that can be accessed via a published WSDL definition
70-764 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements is false? Select the correct answer.
A. The WS-I is an industry standards organization that provides basic profiles to help foster
interoperability among solutions based on XML and Web services industry standards.
B. OASIS is an industry standards organization that has developed a number of important technology
specifications, including WS-BPEL and UDDI.
C. The W3C is a standards organization that has developed a number of important technology
specifications, including SOAP, WSDL, and WS-Addressing.
D. The OAS-C is an industry standards organization that has developed a number of important technology
specifications, including WS-Security and XML Schema.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements is true? Select the correct answer.
A. When using WS-AtomicTransaction, services participating in a transaction vote on the outcome so as
to communicate whether the transaction should be rolled back or committed.
B. When using WS-AtomicTransaction, services participating in a transaction use RPC protocols to
communicate transaction results, so as to communicate whether the transaction should be rolled back

or committed.
C. When using WS-AtomicTransaction, services participating in a transaction rely on the use of WS
Policy definitions to confirm the transaction results.
D. When using WS-AtomicTransaction, services do not actually participate in a transaction. This
specification governs intra-service transactions (transactions that occur within a service boundary)
only. WS-BusinessActivity provides cross-service transaction protocols.
70-764 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which of the following XML documents can be part of a SOAP-based Web service contract? SELECT ALL
THAT APPLY
A. WSDL definition
B. HTTP definition
C. XML schema
D. WS-Policy definition
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 13
Which of the following statements does not make sense? Select the correct answer.
A. I built 3 SOAP-based Web services, each of which has its own published WSDL definition. 2 of the
WSDL definitions share the same XML schema.
B. I built 3 XML schemas, two of which are being shared by the same WSDL definition.
C. I built 3 WSDL definitions and 3 XML schemas. Each WSDL definition is associated with its own XML
schema.
D. All of the above statements make sense.
70-764 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which of the following technologies can be used to enable the exchange of data between services? Select
the correct answer.
A. SOAP
B. HTTP
C. WSDL
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements is true? Select the correct answer.
A. REST services primarily rely on the use of SOAP headers to exchange message metadata.
B. REST services primarily rely on the use of JMS headers to exchange message metadata.
C. REST services primarily rely on the use of HTTP headers to exchange message metadata.
D. REST services do not exchange messages with headers.
70-764 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which of the following statements is true? Select the correct answer.
A. WS-ReliableMessaging establishes a framework that provides an industry-standard means of
transforming XML schema-based data models.

B. WS-ReliableMessaging establishes a framework that provides an industry-standard means of rolling
back changes that occur during a runtime service transaction.
C. WS-ReliableMessaging establishes a framework that provides an industry-standard means of reliably
communicating policy enforcement rules.
D. None of these statements are true.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Using WS-AtomicTransaction you wrap 3 SOAP-based Web services in a single transaction. When it is
time to vote on the outcome of the transaction, 2 of the services vote to commit the changes made during
the transaction, but a vote from the third service is not received. What will happen? Select the correct
answer.
A. The changes are committed because the transaction is considered successful as long as no Abort
votes are received.
B. The changes are rolled back because the transaction is considered unsuccessful when there is a
missing vote.
C. The changes are committed because the transaction is considered successful as long as one Commit
vote is received.
D. The changes are aborted because a transaction can only be considered successful when more than 2
Commit votes are received.
70-764 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
XSLT is a technology that is primarily used to address _____________________ . Select the correct
answer.
A. technology protocol bridging requirements (such as when .NET and Java components need to speak to
each other)
B. data model transformation requirements (such as when similar data based on different XML schemas
needs to be exchanged)
C. layer transformation requirements (such as when data located in different architectural layers needs to
be exchanged between architectural layers)
D. service transformation requirements (such as when two versions of the same service exist)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
WS-BPEL process definitions can be encapsulated by and exposed as SOAP-based Web services.
Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
70-764 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
Which of the following statements makes sense? Select the correct answer.
A. I have 3 REST services, 2 of which do not support the PUT method.
B. I have 3 REST services, 2 of which have a PUT operation in the SOAP header schemas of their WSDL
definitions.
C. I have 3 REST services, 2 of which do not support HTTP.
D. None of these statements make sense.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Messages transmitted using WS-ReliableMessaging are typically __________________ into
__________________. Select the correct answer.
A. decomposed, HTTP methods
B. parsed, WS-Policy definitions
C. grouped, sequences
D. converted, comma-separated-value (CSV) files
70-764 pdf Correct Answer: C

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Cisco

[New Updated Questions] We Have 2017 High Quality Cisco 200-310 Dumps Exam 453Qs&As for CCDA Video Certification Make You Sure Pass

Which is the best way to prepare for Cisco 200-310 dumps? “Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions” is the name of Cisco 200-310 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. We have 2017 high quality Cisco 200-310 dumps exam 453Qs&As For CCDA video certification make you sure pass. Pass4itsure 200-310 dumps exam questions answers are updated (453 Q&As) are verified by experts. The associated certifications of 200-310 dumps is CCDA. The Cisco CCDA 200-310 questions and answers also contain study notes, https://www.pass4itsure.com/200-310.html dumps, 200-310 download, 200-310 practice test and 200-310 review.

Exam Code: 200-310
Exam Name: Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions
Updated: Sep 03, 2017
Q&As: 453

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200-310 dumps

Share some Cisco Specialist 200-310 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 1
What information should be utilized to identify network applications that are running on an existing network infrastructure?
A. customer information
B. existing documentation
C. traffic analysis
D. external feedback
E. user feedback
200-310 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
What are two benefits of a structured IPv4 addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
A. reduces routing table size
B. provides increased security
C. allows for address translation to be performed
D. improves manageability and troubleshooting
E. increases high availability
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 3
Which IP address can be routed to cross the public Internet 200-310 dumps?
A. 10.31.1.1
B. 192.168.32.1
C. 172.32.1.1
D. 169.254.32.1
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices. What routing configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a
private line failure?
A. floating static entry
B. EIGRP variance
C. bandwidth metric
D. OSPF maximum paths
200-310 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Which data center characteristic ensures that adequate resources are provided to efficiently store and
process data?
A. Capacity
B. Availability
C. Scalability
D. Performance
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Which data center management process involves collating and presenting the utilization of resources?
A. Reporting
B. Provisioning
C. Planning
D. Maintenance
200-310 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which type of digital data has no defined format but has a self-describing structure that enables its
analysis?
A. Semi-structured data
B. Structured data
C. Metadata
D. Quasi-structured data
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which type of digital data consists of textual data with inconsistent formats but can be formatted with the
use of software tools?
A. Quasi-structured data
B. Semi-structured data
C. Metadata
D. Unstructured data
200-310 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
What is an accurate statement about a hybrid cloud?
A. Supports data and application portability for load balancing between clouds
B. Allows organizations with common concerns to share the cost of deploying the cloud
C. Enables the entire cloud infrastructure to be controlled by the consumer’s IT staff
D. Allows an organization to outsource the implementation of a private cloud to a cloud provider
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
What is an accurate statement about Software as a Service?
A. Consumer has limited control over user-specific application configuration settings
B. Consumer has control over the operating systems and deployed applications
C. Consumer has control over the configuration settings of the application-hosting environment
D. Consumer has limited control over select networking components, such as host firewalls
200-310 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which cloud service does VMware vCloud Air provide?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Database as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
A start-up company with a limited budget is planning to adopt a hybrid cloud solution for their operations.
The company has business-critical applications that serve customers and have strict service levels. In
addition, the company has less critical applications such as backup and archive.
Which hybrid cloud strategy should be recommended to the company?
A. Deploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud.
Deploy the less critical applications on a public cloud.
B. Deploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud.
Deploy the less critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud.
C. Deploy the business-critical applications on an on-premise private cloud.
Deploy the less critical applications on a public cloud.
D. Deploy the business-critical applications on an externally-hosted private cloud.
Deploy the less critical applications on an on-premise private cloud.
200-310 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Which benefit does the measured service characteristic provide to a cloud service provider?
A. Enables control and optimization of resource use
B. Enables cloud services to communicate with each other
C. Enables availability of specific resources depending on policy
D. Enables the reduction and/or elimination of upfront IT expenditure
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Which cloud computing characteristic enables multi-tenancy and abstracts the location of provided
resources?
A. Resource pooling
B. Measured service
C. Rapid elasticity
D. Broad network access
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
What is an accurate statement about Infrastructure as a Service?
A. Consumer has control over the operating systems and the deployed applications
B. Consumer only has control over user-specific application configuration settings
C. Consumer has control over network devices, compute systems, and storage systems
D. Consumer only has control over the configuration settings of the application-hosting environment
200-310 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
What is an accurate statement about Platform as a Service?
A. Consumer has control over the deployed applications
B. Consumer has control over the operating system and database management system
C. Consumer has control over the programming languages and tools
D. Consumer has control over the operating system and storage
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which capability does big data analytics provide?
A. Enabling data-driven decisions from large volumes of data
B. Storing large volumes of data without affecting availability
C. Reducing the data storage capacity requirement
D. Performing analytics using traditional tools
200-310 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
What is signified by the “variability” characteristic of big data?
A. Meaning of the data changes constantly
B. Data is generated in different formats by numerous sources
C. Data change rate affects its timely analysis
D. Varying data quality affects its reliability and accuracy
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
What is signified by the “variety” characteristic of big data?
A. Data is generated in different formats by numerous sources
B. Meaning of the data changes constantly
C. Varying data quality affects its reliability and accuracy
D. Data change rate affects its timely analysis
200-310 exam 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
What does the transformation of an operating model for third platform adoption involve?
A. Provisioning IT resources through a self-service portal
B. Establishing new roles and responsibilities to manage IT services
C. Adopting virtualization technologies to enable automation
D. Building new technical and business skills in the IT staff
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
What is an accurate statement about a data lake?
A. Stores data as an exact or near-exact copy of the source format
B. Supports query and analysis by classifying and organizing data before storing
C. Stores current and historical data in a structured format on object-based storage
D. Provides a single consistent view of data across an organization for report generation
200-310 dumps 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
Which capability is provided by a software-defined storage controller?
A. Ability to pool and abstract physical storage and present it as an open storage platform
B. Ability for multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical compute system
C. Mechanisms to automatically create application programming interfaces for centralized management
D. Single self-contained package with integrated hardware and software components
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
What is a benefit of using converged infrastructure for building a data center?
A. Reduces the time to acquire and deploy the infrastructure
B. Provides the flexibility to purchase individual IT components
C. Integrates existing IT components into the infrastructure
D. Offers the flexibility to change vendors and prevent vendor lock-in
200-310 pdf 
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
What is a function of the orchestration layer in a data center infrastructure?
A. Provides workflows for automated execution of management tasks
B. Aggregates physical infrastructure components into resource pools
C. Measures the consumption of IT resources by various services
D. Decouples an operating environment from the underlying hardware
Correct Answer: A

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Microsoft Office 365

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Exam Code: 70-346
Exam Name: Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements
Updated: Aug 25, 2017
Q&As: 211

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70-346 dumps

Share some Microsoft Specialist 70-346 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 11
An organization migrates to Office 365.
The Office 365 administrator must be notified when Office 365 maintenance activities are planned.
You need to configure the administrator’s computer to receive the notifications.
What should you configure?
A. Office 365 Management Pack for System Center Operations Manager
B. Service requests
C. Service health page
D. Office 365 Service Health RSS Notifications feed
70-346 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Your company has an Office 365 subscription. You create a new retention policy that contains several
retention tags. A user named Test5 has a client computer that runs Microsoft Office Outlook 2007. You
install Microsoft Outlook 2010 on the client computer of Test5. Test5 reports that the new retention tags
are unavailable from Outlook 2010.
You verify that other users can use the new retention tags. You need to ensure that the new retention tags
are available to Test5 from Outlook 2010.
What should you do?
A. Instruct Test5 to repair the Outlook profile.
B. Modify the retention policy tags.
C. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
D. Force directory synchronization.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
Your company purchases an 70-346 dumps Office 365 plan. The company has an Active Directory Domain Services
domain.
User1 must manage Office 365 delegation for the company.
You need to ensure that User1 can assign administrative roles to other users.
What should you do?
A. Use a password administrator account to assign the role to User1.
B. Use a user management administrator account to assign the role to User1.
C. Create an Office 365 tenant and assign User1 the global administrator role.
D. Create an Office 365 tenant and assign User1 the password administrator role.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Your company has 100 user mailboxes. The company purchases a subscription to Office 365 for
professionals and small businesses. You need to enable the Litigation Hold feature for each mailbox.
What should you do first?
A. Create a service request.
B. Modify the default retention policy.

C. Enable audit logging for all of the mailboxes.
D. Purchase a subscription to Office 365 for midsize business and enterprises.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012.
You plan to install an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) proxy server.
You need to install and configure all of the required roles.
Which two roles should you install and configure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. AD FS
B. Web Server (IIS)
C. Remote Access
D. Application Server
E. Network Policy and Access Service
F. Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS)
70-346 pdf Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 16
A company deploys an Office 365 tenant.
You need to enable multi-factor authentication for Office 365.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the
list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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Select and Place:

70-346 dumps

Correct Answer:

70-346 dumps

QUESTION 17
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
User1 leaves the company. You must delete the account for User1.
In the table below, identify when each type of data will be deleted. Make only one selection in each
column. Each correct selection is worth one point.

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70-346 vce Correct Answer:

70-346 dumps

QUESTION 18
The legal department in your organization creates standardized disclaimers for all of their email messages.
The disclaimers explain that any transmissions that are received in error should be reported back to the
sender. You track any confidential documents that are attached to email messages.
Your security team reports that an employee may have mistakenly sent an email message that contained
confidential information.
You need to identify whether the email message included the disclaimer and whether it contained
confidential information.
Which two options should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate objects in the answer area.

70-346 dumps

Correct Answer:

70-346 dumps

QUESTION 19
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
Users report that their passwords expire too frequently, and they do not receive adequate notice of
password expiration.
Account passwords must remain active for the longest duration allowed. Users must receive password
expiration notifications as early as possible.
You need to configure the password expiration policy.
How should you set the policy on the password page of the Office 365 admin center? To answer, drag the
appropriate duration to the correct location. Each duration may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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70-346 exam Correct Answer:

70-346 dumps

QUESTION 20
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. You audit the Windows Azure Active Directory
Rights Management configuration for the company. You need to view a log of the recent administrative
commands performed against the Microsoft Rights Management Service.
Which three Windows PowerShell cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate
cmdlets from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
70-346 dumps

70-346 dumps

QUESTION 21
Fabrikam, Inc. employs 500 users and plans to migrate to Office 365.
You must sign up for a trial plan from the Office 365 70-346 dumps website. You have the following requirements:
Create the maximum number of trial users allowed.
Convert the trial plan to a paid plan at the end of the trial that supports all of Fabrikam’s users.
You need to create an Office 365 trial plan.

How should you configure the trial plan? Select the correct answer from each list in the answer area.
Hot Area:

QUESTION 22
A company deploys an Office 365 tenant. You install the Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
server role on a server that runs Windows Server 2012. You install and configure the Federation Service
Proxy role service. Users sign in by using the Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) protocol.
You need to customize the sign-in pages for Office 365.
Which pages should you customize? To answer, drag the appropriate page to the correct customization.
Each page may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-346 dumps

QUESTION 22
A company deploys an Office 365 tenant. You install the Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
server role on a server that runs Windows Server 2012. You install and configure the Federation Service
Proxy role service. Users sign in by using the Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) protocol.
You need to customize the sign-in pages for Office 365.
Which pages should you customize? To answer, drag the appropriate page to the correct customization.
Each page may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
70-346 dumps

Correct Answer:

70-346 dumps

QUESTION 23
HOTSPOT
A company has an Office 365 tenant.

You plan to use Active Directory Federated Services for user authentication. You create an account named
SyscService in Active Directory and in Office 365. You must configure the permissions for the 70-346  pdf accounts in
both environments by granting the minimum permissions required.
In the table below, identify the role that you must assign to each account/ Note: Make only one selection in
each column. Each correct answer is worth one point.
Hot Area:
70-346 dumps

QUESTION 24
DRAG DROP
You have an Office 365 tenant. An organization is migrating from an Exchange organization to Office 365.
Users report that Outlook does not display the availability of other users for meetings. You must determine
whether an Office 365 mailbox can access the scheduling availability of a user with an on-premises
mailbox. You must also run a test to verify that an on-premises mailbox can access the scheduling
availability of a user that has an Office 365 mailbox.
You need to conduct the tests.
What should you do? To answer, drag the appropriate test to run to the correct mailbox test scenario. Each
test may be used once, more than once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:

70-346 dumps

QUESTION 25
DRAG DROP
A company has an Office 365 tenant. You plan to use Office 365 to manage the Microsoft 70-346 dumps DNS settings for a custom
domain. You purchase the domain through a third-party provider.
You create a custom website. You must host the website through a third-party provider at the IP address
134.170.185.46. You need to configure the correct DNS settings.
What should you do? To answer, drag the appropriate DNS record to the correct DNS target. Each record
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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