Index

Is Cisco 300-115 dumps certification worth getting? The Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks (300-115 SWITCH) exam is a 120 minutes (30-40 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNP Routing and Switching, CCDP certification. Real Cisco 300-115 dump SWITCH exam Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks are based on the real exam video training. “Implementing Cisco IP Switched Networks” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 300-115 dump test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 300-115 exam. Preparing for the CCNP Routing and Switching 300-115 certification Exam by getting the https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-115.html dump questions answers from a reliable source makes a candidate confident which makes him/her able to score high because confidence is required for gaining success in everything in life.

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Share Some Cisco Specialist 300-115 Dump Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the debug output, which three statements about HSRP are true? (Choose Three)
A. The final active router is the router with IP address 172.16.11.111
B. The router with IP address 172.16.11.111 has preempt configured
C. The priority of the router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is preferred over the router with IP address 172.16.11.111
D. The IP address 172.16.11.115 is the virtual HSRP IP address
E. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 has nonpreempt configured
F. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is using default HSRP priority.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 19
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a device failure.

Refer to the exhibit. If router R1 interface Etherne0/0 goes down and recovers, which of the statement regarding HSRP priority is true?
A. The interface will have the priority decremented by 40 for HSRP group 1.
B. The interface will have the priority decremented by 60 for HSRP group 1
C. The interface will have its current priority incremented by 40 for HSRP group 1
D. The interface will have its current priority incremented by 60 for HSRP group 1
E. The interface will default to the a priority of 100 for HSRP group 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution. DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105  DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104 A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed. Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.

What is the priority value of the VLAN 105 HSRP group on DSW2?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a device failure.

What issue is causing Router R1 and R2 to both be displayed as the HSRP active router for group 2?
A. The HSRP group number mismatch
B. The HSRP group authentication is misconfigured
C. The HSRP Hello packets are blocked
D. The HSRP timers mismatch
E. The HSRP group priorities are different
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Scenario:
You work for SWITCH.com. They have just added a new switch (SwitchB) to the existing network as shown in the topology diagram.
RouterA is currently configured correctly and is providing the routing function for devices on SwitchA and SwitchB. SwitchA is currently configured correctly, but will need to be modified to support the addition of SwitchB. SwitchB has a minimal configuration. You have been tasked with competing the needed configuring of SwitchA and SwitchB. SwitchA and SwitchB use Cisco as the enable password.
Configuration Requirements for SwitchA The VTP and STP configuration modes on SwitchA should not be modified.
• SwitchA needs to be the root switch for vlans 11, 12, 13, 21, 22 and 23. All other vlans should be left are their default values. Configuration Requirements for SwitchB
• Vlan 21
Name: Marketing will support two servers attached to fa0/9 and fa0/10
• Vlan 22
Name: Sales will support two servers attached to fa0/13 and fa0/14
• Vlan 23
o Name: Engineering
o will support two servers attached to fa0/15 and fa0/16
• Access ports that connect to server should transition immediately to forwarding state upon detecting the connection of a device.
• SwitchB VTP mode needs to be the same as SwitchA.
• SwitchB must operate in the same spanning tree mode as SwitchA
• No routing is to be configured on SwitchB
• Only the SVI vlan 1 is to be configured and it is to use address 192.168.1.11/24 Inter-switch Connectivity Configuration Requirements
• For operational and security reasons trunking should be unconditional and Vlans 1, 21, 22 and 23 should tagged when traversing the trunk link.
• The two trunks between SwitchA and SwitchB need to be configured in a mode that allows for the maximum use of their bandwidth for all vlans. This mode should be done with a non-proprietary protocol, with SwitchA controlling activation.
• Propagation of unnecessary broadcasts should be limited using manual pruning on this trunk link.

QUESTION 23

QUESTION 24
Because of the large number of factors that could affect the demand for its new product, interactions among these factors, and the probabilities associated with different values of these factors, the marketing department would like to develop a computerized model for projecting demand for this product. By using a random number procedure to generate values for the different factors, it will be able to estimate the distribution of demand for this new product. This method of estimating the distribution of demand for the new product is called
A. Monte Carlo simulation.
B. Linear programming.
C. Correlation analysis.
D. Differential analysis.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique in which a probabilistic process is first modeled. The inputs to themodel are then varied a large number of times to estimate the distribution of possibleoutcomes from the model of the variable of interest. Simulations that use a random numberprocedure to generate values for the inputs are referred to as Monte Carlo simulations.

QUESTION 25
An account executive has just designed a Monte Carlo model to estimate the costs of a particular type of project. Validating the model could include all except:
A. Checking for errors in the computer programming.
B. Checking that assumed probability distributions are reasonable.
C. Comparing test results with previously validated models.
D. Applying the model.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Monte Carlo technique is used in a simulation to generate the individual values for arandom value. An essential step in the simulation procedure is to validate the mathematicalmodel used. This process involves not only searching for errors but also verifying theassumptions. It also should provide some assurance that the results of the experiment will berealistic. This assurance is often obtained using historical data. If the model gives resultsequivalent to what actually happened, the model is historically valid. There is still some risk,however, that changes could make the model invalid for the future. The model should not beimplemented until this validation process is complete.

QUESTION 26
A large fishing operation has information on the interval, time, and probabilities of shrimp schools staying beneath their fishing boats. In order to use this information to predict when and where to send their boats, which of the following techniques should be used?
A. Simulation.
B. Least squares.
C. Queuing theory.
D. Exponential smoothing.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation Monte Carlo simulation) is a technique for experimenting withlogical/mathematical models using a computer. Despite the power of mathematics, manyproblems cannot be solved by known analytical methods because of the behavior of thevariables and the complexity of their interactions. However, the performance of aquantitative model under uncertainty may be investigated by randomly selecting values foreach variable in the model based on its probability distribution) and then calculating thevalue of the solution. If this process is performed many times, the distribution of results fromthe model will be obtained.

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is not true about simu-lation models?
A. They are deterministic in nature.
B. The may involve sampling.
C. They mathematically estimate what actual performance would be.
D. They emulate stochastic systems.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique for experimenting with logical/mathematical models using acomputer. The simulation procedure has five steps: define the objectives, formulate themodel, validate the model, design the experiment, and conduct the simulation and evaluatethe results. A simulation uses the laws of probability to generate values for random variables. Thus, simulation models are probabilistic, not deterministic.

QUESTION 28
A cost-volume-profit model developed in a dynamic environment determined that the estimated parameters used may vary between limits. Subsequent testing of the model with respect to all possible values of the estimated parameters is termed:
A. A sensitivity analysis.
B. Statistical estimation.
C. Statistical hypothesis testing.
D. A time-series study.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
After a problem has been formulated into any mathematical model, it may be subjected tosensitivity analysis. Sensitivity analysis is a method for studying the effects of changes in oneor more variables on the results of a decision model.

QUESTION 29
An investment company is attempting to allocate its available funds between two investment alternatives, stocks and bonds, which differ in terms of expected return and risk. The company would like to minimize its risk while earning an expected return of at least 10% and investing no more than 70% in either of the investment alternatives. An appropriate technique for allocating its funds between stocks and bonds is:
A. Linear programming.
B. Capital budgeting.
C. Differential analysis.
D. Queuing theory.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Linear programming is a mathematical technique for planning resource allocation thatoptimizes a given objective function that is subject to certain constraints. In this case, themaximum investment is constrained by a 70% limit on either investment choice.

QUESTION 30
A company is deciding whether to purchase an automated machine to manufacture one of its products. Expected net cash flows from this decision depend on several factors, interactions among those factors, and the probabilities associated with different levels of those factors.
The method that the company should use to evaluate the distribution of net cash flows from this decision and changes in net cash flows resulting from changes in levels of various factors is:
A. Simulation and sensitivity analysis.
B. Linear programming.
C. Correlation analysis.
D. Differential analysis.
300-115  pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique used to describe the behavior of a real-world system over time. This technique usually employs a computer program to perform the simulation computations. Sensitivity analysis examines how outcomes change as the model parameters change.

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QUESTION 1
Within Platform as a Service, which two components are managed by the customer?(Choose two)
A. Data.
B. Networking.
C. Middleware.
D. Applications.
E. Operating system
400-251 exam Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 2
Which two characteristics of DTLS are true?(Choose two )
A. It is used mostly by applications that use application layer object-protocols B. It includes a congestion control mechanism
B. It completes key negotiation and bulk data transfer over a single channel.
C. It supports long data transfers and connectionless data transfers.
D. It cannot be used if NAT exists along the path.
E. It concludes a retransmission method because it uses an unreliable datagram transport
Correct Answer: AD
Question No : 3 – (Topic 1) Which of the following phases of the TOGAF ADM correspond most closely to the ArchiMate Motivation Extension?
A. Preliminary, Architecture Vision, Requirements Management
B. Opportunities and Solutions, Migration Planning, Implementation Governance
C. Architecture Change Management
D. Business Architecture, Information Systems Architectures, Technology Architecture
400-251 dumps Answer: A
Question No : 4 – (Topic 1) Which of the following best describes why ArchiMate supports specialization of concepts?
A. It is the only way to model enterprise architecures that are useable and easy to communicate to the stakeholders
B. It is needed to represent the same concept on different viewpoints
C. It provides extra flexibility, enabling users to customize the language to their own preferences and needs, while maintaining the underlying precise definition of the concepts
D. It is allowed because without this mechanism it would be impossible to add attributes to ArchiMate concepts and relations
Answer: C
Question No : 5 – (Topic 1) Which application layer concept is defined as a passive element?
A. Application component
B. Application function r
C. Data object
D. Business object
400-251 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)  Consider the following diagram representing part of a key PRO-FIT capability: self-service online price quotes for its auto insurance customers: Which of the following answers best interprets this diagram?
A. The Self-Service Quote Solution is an application service that uses four separate application components
B. The Self-Service Quote Solution is an application collaboration that includes four application components that work together
C. The Self-Service Quote Solution is an application component that accesses four different types of data objects
D. The Self-Service Quote Solution is an application component that collaborates with four service modules
Answer: B
Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)
The following diagram shows an example of the use of the Migration viewpoint:  Which of the following best describes a reason for using this viewpoint?
A. To model the management of architecture change
B. To help determine the priorities of implementation projects
C. To relate programs and projects to the parts of the architecture that they implement
D. To help in planning the transition from the current architecture to a desired future architecture
400-251 vce Answer: D
Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Consider the following diagram: What does the diagram express about the Underwriting Application?
A. It has three distinct components
B. It processes three different types of data objects
C. It performs three different functions
D. It groups together three components that are not a part of the Underwriting Application
Answer: C
Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)  Consider the following symbol, which represents information about a transformation project at ArchiSurance involving systems and business processes: Which of the following statements correctly expresses the meaning of the symbol?
A. The ArchiSurance legal department has determined the impact of the new regulations
B. The project must satisfy requirements for additional reporting
C. The additional reporting requirements in new insurance regulations are driving change at ArchiSurance
D. The project’s systems must be flexible enough to accommodate any future changes in reporting requirements
400-251 exam Answer: C
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
Consider the following three graphical notations:
Which of the three graphical notations represent the concept of a network?
A. Only notation 1 represents the network concept
B. Only notation 2 represents the network concept
C. Notations 1 and 3 represent the network concept
D. All three notations represent the network concept
Answer: C
Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)  Consider the following symbol, which represents information about a transformation project at ArchiSurance. Note that premium in this context means the total revenue ArchiSurance receives from legal services insurance premium payments: Which of the following statements correctly expresses the meaning of the symbol?
A. ArchiSurance has attributed a 15% increase in premium to the transformation project in 2012
B. The increased premium revenue created by completion of the transformation project will motivate significant change in the ArchiSurance Legally Yours division
C. ArchiSurance has set a goal to increase legal services premium by 15% in 2012, as compared to the previous year
D. ArchiSurance has a requirement to increase legal services premium by 15% in 2012
400-251 dumps Answer: C
Question No : 12 – (Topic 1) Consider the following diagram, which represents a migration from a Baseline to a Target Architecture:
Which of the following answers best interprets the unlabeled symbol in the middle of the diagram?
A. It represents a relatively stable intermediate state during the migration from the Baseline to the Target Architectures
B. It represents a project that progresses the architecture from Baseline to Target
C. It represents the deliverables necessary to transform the architecture from Baseline to Target
D. It represents a conceptual point of transition between the two architectures, but one that is unlikely to exist in reality for more than an instant
Answer: A
Question No : 13 – (Topic 1) The following diagram shows a typical group of stakeholders: Which ArchiMate viewpoint abstraction level would support these stakeholders for the purpose of change management?
A. Coherence
B. Designing
C. Details
D. Overview
400-251 pdf Answer: D
Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)  Consider the following diagram: What does the diagram express about the relationship between the three processes?
A. Take in Claim passes information to Gather Claim Information, and Gather Claim Information passes information to Adjudicate Claim
B. Take in Claim triggers Gather Claim Information, and Gather Claim Information triggers Adjudicate Claim
C. Take in Claim is used by Gather Claim Information, and Gather Claim Information is used by Adjudicate Claim
D. The three processes may execute in parallel, although they don’t have to
Answer: B
Question No : 15 – (Topic 1)  According to the ISO/IEC 40210 standard, which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. A view conforms to a viewpoint
B. A viewpoint always addresses one or more stakeholders
C. A concern is always important to one or more stakeholders
D. A viewpoint always covers exactly one concern
400-251 vce Answer: D
Question No : 16 – (Topic 1)  Consider the following diagram: What is the strongest structural relationship that can be derived from business role Actuary to business interaction Close contract (indicated by number 1 in the diagram)?
A. Assignment
B. Aggregation
C. Realization
D. Used by
Answer: D
Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)
After a claim is processed, ArchiSurance notifies the claimant with a Claim Letter. Consider the following diagram: Which of the following answers correctly interprets the diagram?
A. Printed Claim Letters are scanned and stored online
B. Claim letters have two forms: printed and electronic
C. A Printed Claim Letter realizes a Claim Letter business object
D. Copies of Printed Claim Letters are stored in a Claim Letter filing cabinet
E. Printed Claim Letters are read from the Claim Letter object
400-251 exam Answer: C
Question No : 18 – (Topic 1)  Consider the following diagram, in which CSR stands for Customer Service Representative: Which of the following statements is expressed by the diagram?
A. CSR Training has four key modules, each focusing on a different topic
B. The CSR Training business service is valuable in four different ways
C. CSR Training is a basic service, upon which four sub-services depend
D. CSR Training accesses four different types of information
Answer: B
Question No : 19 – (Topic 1)  Consider the following diagram: Which of the following statements best interprets this diagram?
A. Output generation is explicitly modelled as the collective behavior of the application components: Policy administration application and Financial application
B. Output generation is an application service that is realized in a joint effort of the Policy administration application and the Financial application
C. Output generation is behavior that is present in the Policy administration application as well as in the Financial application
D. Output generation represents the application collaboration of the Policy administration  application and Financial application
400-251 dumps Answer: C
Question No : 20 – (Topic 1)  Consider the following diagram with four relationships modeled: Which relationship modeled in the diagram is not allowed to connect the application layer with the technology layer?
A. Relationship 1
B. Relationship 2
C. Relationship 3
D. Relationship 4
Answer: D
Question No : 21 – (Topic 1)  Which of the following statements about ArchiMate viewpoint classification is correct?
A. There are three purpose dimensions and three abstraction levels
B. There are two purpose dimensions and three abstraction layers
C. There are four purpose dimensions and two abstraction levels
D. There are three purpose dimensions and four abstraction layers
400-251 pdf Answer: A
Question No : 22 – (Topic 1)
Consider the following diagram: Which answer most accurately interprets what the diagram indicates about the goal “Reduce Expense Ratio from 13% to 11% in 2012”?
A. The goal is decomposed into three other goals
B. The goal is similar to the three other goals
C. The goal must be achieved before any of the other three goals is achieved
D. The goal will be achieved if at least one of the other three goals is achieved in 2012
Answer: A
Question No : 23 – (Topic 1)  Which concept is typically used to model hardware systems such as mainframes, PCs, or routers?
A. System software
B. Network
C. Artifact
D. Device
400-251 vce Answer: D
Question No : 24 – (Topic 1)
Consider the following symbol, which represents information about a transformation project at ArchiSurance involving systems and business processes:  Which of the following statements correctly expresses the meaning of the symbol?
A. The Board of Directors will use the transformed systems
B. The Board of Directors has a business role in the project
C. The transformed systems will store information of interest to the Board of Directors
D. The Board of Directors has concerns about the project
Answer: D
Question No : 25 – (Topic 1)  At ArchiSurance, risk assessment is part of an activity used to determine the adequacy of the company’s financial reserves against future claims and fluctuations in the value of its investments. Which ArchiMate relationship should be used to express the forwarding of risk assessment  findings for the reserve evaluation process?
A. Access
B. Assignment
C. Association
D. Flow
400-251 exam Answer: D
Question No : 26 – (Topic 1)  Consider the following diagram,which conforms to a standard ArchiMate viewpoint that uses a simplified notation: To which standard ArchiMate viewpoint does this diagram conform?
A. Elementary viewpoint
B. Introductory viewpoint
C. Coherence viewpoint
D. Deciding viewpoint
Answer: B
Question No : 27 – (Topic 1)
Consider the following diagram:  Which of the following answers best interprets the diagram?
A. The Claims Entry application service realizes the Take Claim Over Telephone business process
B. The Claims Entry application service is used by the Take Claim Over Telephone business process
C. Information flows from the Claims Entry application to the Take Claim Over Telephone business process
D. The Claims Entry business service is used by the Take Claim Over Telephone team
400-251 dumps Answer: B
Question No : 28 – (Topic 1) Which Implementation and Migration Extension viewpoint is used to model the management of architecture change?
A. Migration viewpoint
B. Implementation and Migration viewpoint
C. Business Function viewpoint
D. Project viewpoint
Answer: D
Question No : 29 – (Topic 1)  The diagram below shows key elements of the configuration of ArchiSurance’s newest and most powerful high-end server, which is a model T-9900: Which of the following descriptions of the configuration is most consistent with the diagram?
A. The T-9900 is fitted with a DVX-1200 cooling system and and AX-3000 onboard disk array
B. The T-9900 is running PRO-FIT’s custom, internally-developed DVX-1200 software for enterprise risk analysis and is fitted with an AX-3000 onboard disk array
C. The T-9900 node is running DVX-1200 middleware and the AX-3000 operating system software
D. The T-9900 is an assembly of DVX-1200 processing units and AX-3000 high-speed memory arrays
400-251 pdf Answer: C

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Question No : 12 Customers connecting to a Service Provider for Internet access are intending to implement redundant peering. The design requirements call for preferring a primary link for both ingress and egress traffic. Secondary links should be used only during primary outages. What two BGP deployment options will accomplish this design goal? (Choose two.)
A. On the router handling the secondary link, advertise routes with a MED value of 0.
B. On the router handling the primary link, set the weight for all incoming routes to be a value of 0.
C. On the router handling the secondary link, advertise all routes with a longer AS-PATH value.
D. On the router handling the primary link, advertise all routes with a longer AS-PATH value.
E. On the router handling the secondary link, set the local preference for all incoming routes to be a value of 0.
400-201 exam Answer: C,E
Question No : 13
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

A. This is an inter autonomous unicast route.
B. The BGP MED value is 26.
C. This is an mVPN route.
D. The route target value is 10.1.100.2:3.
E. There is a route reflector in this network.
F. The route did not import this route into the VRF one.
Answer: E
Question No : 14  Which statement about Remotely Triggered Black Hole (RTBH) is true?
A. Route tagging is one of the techniques used by RTBH
B. It is used for BGP authentication
C. It cannot work with static routes
D. It uses extended ACLs for blocking attacks by creating a black hole
E. Before configuring RTBH. LDP must be enabled on the interface
400-201 dumps Answer: A
Question No : 15
Which description is true of that the fast-reroute keep all paths command accomplishes when used under OSPF process?
A. All possible alternate routes are installed in the OSPF RIB, even if the alternate paths do not meet the LFA criteria (the LFA inequalities)
B. By default, only the /32 routes have a backup path installed. This command creates a  backup path for the router with any subnet mask.
C. Besides the regular LFA backup paths, this command also installs the remote LFA backup paths.
D. All backup routes – not only the best backup route are installed in the OSPF RIB.
Answer: D
Candidate Repair-Path Lists When OSPF computes a repair path, it keeps in the local RIB only the best from among all the candidate paths, in order to conserve memory. You can use the fast-reroute keep-all-paths command to create a list of all the candidate repair paths that were considered. This information can be useful for troubleshooting but it can greatly increase memory consumption so it should be reserved for testing and debugging.
Question No : 16  Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is troubleshooting CSC-PE and CSC-CE configurations and finds that there is a missing communication between Layer 3 VPN customer sites that are connected to customer carrier provider. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The static route configured on CSC-PE1 is missing the vrf keyword on next-hop information.
B. The CSC-PE1 does require knowledge of the Layer 3 VPN customer prefixes in order to allocate and exchange Layer 3 VPN labels with CSC-CE1.
C. A CSC design requires selective label allocation.
D. The CSC-PE1 device is not allocating labels for the CSC backbone carrier route reflector.
E. The CSC-PE1 and CSC-CE1 routers are not exchanging labeled IPv4 prefixes, which results in LSP blackholing.
400-201 pdf Answer: E
Question No : 17  In an end-to-end Layer 2 service, which technology provides the capability to detect, verify, isolate, and report faults across a provider network?
A. carrier detect
B. UDLD
C. BFD
D. CFM
Answer: D
Question No : 18 A system administrator wants to install a VCS database enterprise agent on to an active/passive cluster. Where should the database agent files be installed?
A. on local storage on every system in the cluster
B. on local storage on the machine designated as the active system
C. on shared storage so that both active and passive systems will have access
D. on shared storage with a symbolic link to the database on the active system
400-201 vce Answer: A
Question No : 19 Which VCS bundled agent can be used to mirror the state of a NIC resource to another service group?
A. Proxy
B. Phantom C.
IPMultiNIC D.
MnicReflect
Answer: A
Question No : 20 What are three default behaviors of VCS? (Choose three.)
A. migrating applications from a system on intentional system shutdown
B. shutting down the system when an application fails on that system
C. enabling remote access for the cluster management GUI
D. AutoDisable the service groups on a system when that system fails
400-201 exam Answer: ACD
Question No : 21 You have a two-system VCS cluster with two dedicated Ethernet heartbeats and I/O Fencing enabled. What will happen if both heartbeat connections are lost simultaneously?
A. The cluster automatically stops on both systems.
B. All services groups are frozen on both systems.
C. All service groups are evacuated from both systems.
D. One system will panic, and the other will remain up and operational.
Answer: D
Question No : 22 Given a service group where FailOverPolicy=Load, which VCS attribute does HAD use to determine the failover target?
A. Capacity
B. Load
C. Prerequisites
D. AvailableCapacity
400-201 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 23 Which set of commands are needed to add a resource type TypeA with a RestartLimit of 2 to a running cluster?
A. haconf -makerw
hatype add TypeA
hatype modify TypeA RestartLimit 2
haconf dump -makero
B. haconf makerw
hares add TypeA
hares modify TypeA RestartLimit 2
haconf dump -makero
C. haconf makerw
hatype add TypeA
hatype set TypeA RestartLimit 2
haconf dump -makero
D. haconf makerw
hatype modify TypeA RestartLimit 2
hatype add TypeA
haconf dump -makero
Answer: A
Question No : 24 There is a requirement for an application to remain online when a public network interface fails in a two-system VCS cluster. Which hardware configuration is required to configure this behavior in VCS?
A. At least two public network interfaces must be present on each system.
B. One network interface per system will work as long as two or more switches are present.
C. VCS will fail over the application any time any network interface fails on a system.
D. Multiple network interfaces must be on the same controller card on each system.
400-201 pdf Answer: A
Question No : 25 You are planning to install both VERITAS Cluster Server and VERITAS Volume Manager. You will also be changing the application environment over the course of the next 18 months. Increasing the number of will require modification of the VCS configuration. (Choose three.)
A. highly available applications
B. file systems used by the highly available applications
C. disk groups used by the highly available applications
D. disks in the disk group used by the highly available applications
Answer: ABC
Question No : 26 What is a requirement for implementing a VCS cluster?
A. Hardware single points of failure must be isolated and eliminated.
B. An application must be able to restart to a known state after a failure.
C. An application must be able to run simultaneously on all clustered systems.
D. Monitored redundant hardware components must be the same make and model.
400-201 vce Answer: B
Question No : 27 The systems you need to work on are in production and you want to minimize downtime. VCS is not currently installed or configured, though an application is. Which two tasks can be performed prior to the downtime window? (Choose two.)
A. modify the public network interface configuration
B. connect the Fibre Channel cable from the system to the storage switch
C. attach the copper SCSI cable to the storage array
D. modify the private network interface configuration
E. test public network interfaces by disconnecting the cables
Answer: BD
Question No : 28 You want to install a database application in a four-node VCS cluster.  Which system configuration is NOT suitable for the cluster?
A. SystemA
B. SystemB
C. SystemC
D. SystemD
400-201 exam Answer: D
Question No : 29 Which hardware component is considered key in a high availability configuration using VERITAS Volume Manager and VCS?
A. multiple I/O paths
B. shared memory segment definitions
C. multiple processors
D. Fibre Channel attached storage
Answer: A
Question No : 30 Which two passwords do you need to install and configure VCS with the Oracle Enterprise Agent with second level monitoring? (Choose two.)
A. network switch
B. administrative user
C. cluster operator
D. Oracle user
400-201 dumps Answer: BD
Question No : 31 You are installing VCS on a new four-node cluster. You will be running the installation program from a single node. The system administrators are concerned about system security and do not want to give you the administrative password. Instead, they want to enter the password once and then leave you alone to work. Assuming there are no reboots into single-user mode, which two methods enable you to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. telnet
B. ftp C.
ssh D.
rsh E.
RPC
Answer: CD
Question No : 32 During review of a two-system VCS active-passive cluster installation, it is noticed that all disks are configured into a VERITAS Volume Manager disk group containing the boot disk. Which limitation does this impose?
A. VCS cannot manage volumes created in this disk group.
B. Volumes in this disk group are restricted to only having two plexes.
C. This disk group cannot be deported/imported during an application fail over.
D. There are no limitations to having all disks in this disk group.
400-201 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 33 Which elements are NOT components of a base VCS installation? (Choose two.)
A. bundled agents
B. enterprise agents
C. PERL
D. GAB Drivers
E. Clustered Volume Manager
Answer: BE
Question No : 34 You have just installed VCS using the installvcs script on a two-system cluster. Now you are checking the contents of key configuration files to validate the installation. What is the name of the command, with options, that you find in the /etc/gabtab file?
A. gabconfig c -x
B. gabconfig c n 2
C. gabconfig -x
D. gabconfig n 2
400-201 vce Answer: B
Question No : 35 A sysname file is created on one of the cluster systems. Which two additional files need to be modified on that system? (Choose two.)
A. llthosts
B. gabtab
C. gabhosts
D. main.cf E.
types.cf
Answer: AD
Question No : 36 Which VCS utility is used to verify a configuration file and can also be used by the VCS engine to load a configuration file at run time?
A. hacf
B. haconf
C. haload
D. haverify
400-201 exam Answer: A
Question No : 37 VCS needs to be patched on systems running in a production environment. There are two service groups currently running in a cluster that has two systems. VCS is to be stopped on all systems in the cluster in order to apply the patch without any application downtime. What is the proper VCS command to accomplish this?
A. hastop all
B. hastop all force
C. hapause upgrade
D. hasys -stop
Answer: B
Question No : 38 Click the Exhibit button. The diagram shows a proposed HA configuration. What effect would configuring the public NIC to handle low priority heartbeats have?
A. provides more protection from split brain
B. improves LLT and GAB traffic load balance
C. prevents the cluster from going into jeopardy if both private heartbeats fail
D. provides additional availability for the public NIC
400-201 dumps Answer: A
Question No : 39 What are two ways to obtain a valid VERITAS Cluster Server license key? (Choose two.)
A. call the automated License Key Request line
B. contact your VERITAS Sales Representative
C. contact VERITAS Technical Support
D. use the key provided in the installation manual
E. use the VERITAS vLicense WEB site
Answer: BE

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QUESTION 116
Refer to the exhibit.

Which item does F represent?
A. HDD 1
B. TFP Module
C. SuperCap Module
D. CPU 2
E. CMOS Battery
010-151 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 117
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement correctly identifies the front panel LEDs on the Cisco UCS C220 Server?
A. A is power button and power status LED; B is identification button and LED; C is system status LED; D is network link activity LED.
B. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification button and LED.
C. A is system status LED; B is network link activity LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification button and LED.
D. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is identification button and LED; D is power button and power status LED.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 118
Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?
A. up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
B. up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors
C. up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
D. two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors
010-151 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 119
Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual Fiber Channel Module
B. Virtual Ethernet Module
C. Virtual Supervisor Module
D. Virtual Memory Controller Module
E. Virtual Network Module
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 120
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?
A. Cisco Nexus 5548P
B. Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C. Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D. Cisco Nexus 5596T
010-151 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 121
Which Cisco MDS model supports the most Fibre Channel ports per chassis?
A. MDS 9513
B. MDS 9509
C. MDS 9506
D. MDS 9250i
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 122
Refer to the exhibit.

Which Cisco MDS chassis supports the 48-Port 16-Gbps Fibre Channel Switching Module?
A. MDS 9509
B. MDS 9513
C. MDS 9710
D. MDS 9506
010-151 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 123
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the name of this rack-mount server?
A. Cisco UCS C220 Rack-Mount Server
B. Cisco UCS C240 Rack-Mount Server
C. Cisco UCS C420 Rack-Mount Server
D. Cisco UCS C460 Rack-Mount Server
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 124
Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch?
A. first-generation supervisor module
B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2)
C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E)
D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E)
010-151 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 125
The Web resource collection is a security constraint element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification v2.4. Which of the following elements does it include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. HTTP methods
B. Role names
C. Transport guarantees
D. URL patterns
Answer: A,D
Explanation: Web resource collection is a set of URL patterns and HTTP operations that define all resources required to be protected. It is a security constraint element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification v2.4. The Web resource collection includes the following elements: URL patterns HTTP methods Answer: B is incorrect. An authorization constraint includes role names. Answer: C is incorrect. A user data constraint includes transport guarantees.
QUESTION NO: 126
Which of the following activities are performed by the ‘Do’ cycle component of PDCA (plan-do check-act)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It detects and responds to incidents properly.
B. It determines controls and their objectives.
C. It manages resources that are required to achieve a goal.
D. It performs security awareness training.
E. It operates the selected controls.
010-151 exam Answer: A,C,D,E
Explanation: The ‘Do’ cycle component performs the following activities: It operates the selected controls. It detects and responds to incidents properly. It performs security awareness training. It manages resources that are required to achieve a goal. Answer: B is incorrect. This activity is performed by the ‘Plan’ cycle component of PDCA.
QUESTION NO: 127
Numerous information security standards promote good security practices and define frameworks or systems to structure the analysis and design for managing information security controls. Which of the following are the international information security standards? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. AU audit and accountability
B. Human resources security
C. Organization of information security
D. Risk assessment and treatment
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation: Following are the various international information security standards: Risk assessment and treatment: Analysis of the organization’s information security risks Security policy: Management direction Organization of information security: Governance of information security Asset management: Inventory and classification of information assets Human resources security: Security aspects for employees joining, moving, and leaving an organization Physical and environmental security: Protection of the computer facilities Communications and operations management: Management of technical security controls in systems and networks Access control: Restriction of access rights to networks, systems, applications, functions, and data Information systems acquisition, development and maintenance: Building security into applications Information security incident management: Anticipating and responding appropriately to information security breaches Business continuity management: Protecting, maintaining, and recovering business-critical processes and systems Compliance: Ensuring conformance with information security policies, standards, laws, and regulations Answer: A is incorrect. AU audit and accountability is a U.S. Federal Government information security standard.
QUESTION NO: 128
The Data and Analysis Center for Software (DACS) specifies three general principles for software assurance which work as a framework in order to categorize various secure design principles. Which of the following principles and practices does the General Principle 1 include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Principle of separation of privileges, duties, and roles
B. Assume environment data is not trustworthy
C. Simplify the design
D. Principle of least privilege
010-151 dumps Answer: A,D
Explanation: General Principle 1- Minimize the number of high-consequence targets includes the following principles and practices: Principle of least privilege Principle of separation of privileges, duties, and roles Principle of separation of domains Answer: B is incorrect. Assume environment data is not trustworthy principle is included in the General Principle 2. Answer: C is incorrect. Simplify the design principle is included in the General Principle 3.
QUESTION NO: 129
Fill in the blank with the appropriate security mechanism. is a computer hardware mechanism or programming language construct which handles the occurrence of exceptional events.
A. Exception handling
Answer: A
Explanation: Exception handling is a computer hardware mechanism or programming language construct that handles the occurrence of events. These events occur during the software execution process and interrupt the instruction flow. Exception handling performs the specific activities for managing the exceptional events.
QUESTION NO: 130
In which of the following phases of the DITSCAP process does Security Test and Evaluation (ST&E) occur?
A. Phase 2
B. Phase 4
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 1
010-151 pdf Answer: C
Explanation: Security Test and Evaluation (ST&E) occurs in Phase 3 of the DITSCAP C&A process. Answer: D is incorrect.
The Phase 1 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Definition Phase. The goal of this phase is to define the C&A level of effort, identify the main C&A roles and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements. The Phase 1 starts with the input of the mission need. This phase comprises three process activities: Document mission need Registration Negotiation Answer: A is incorrect.
The Phase 2 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Verification. The goal of this phase is to obtain a fully integrated system for certification testing and accreditation. This phase takes place between the signing of the initial version of the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system. This phase verifies security requirements during system development. The process activities of this phase are as follows: Configuring refinement of the SSAA System development Certification analysis Assessment of the Analysis Results Answer: B is incorrect.
The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has been accredited in the Phase 3. The goal of this phase is to continue to operate and manage the system and to ensure that it will maintain an acceptable level of residual risk. The process activities of this phase are as follows: System operations Security operations Maintenance of the SSAA Change management Compliance validation
QUESTION NO: 131
Which of the following access control models uses a predefined set of access privileges for an object of a system?
A. Role-Based Access Control
B. Discretionary Access Control
C. Policy Access Control
D. Mandatory Access Control
Answer: D
Explanation: Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is a model that uses a predefined set of access privileges for an object of the system. Access to an object is restricted on the basis of the sensitivity of the object and granted through authorization. Sensitivity of an object is defined by the label assigned to it. For example, if a user receives a copy of an object that is marked as “secret”, he cannot grant permission to other users to see this object unless they have the appropriate permission. Answer: B is incorrect. DAC is an access control model. In this model, the data owner has the right to decide who can access the data. Answer: A is incorrect. Role-based access
control (RBAC) is an access control model. In this model, a user can access resources according to his role in the organization. For example, a backup administrator is responsible for taking backups of important data. Therefore, he is only authorized to access this data for backing it up. However, sometimes users with different roles need to access the same resources. This situation can also be handled using the RBAC model. Answer: C is incorrect. There is no such access control model as Policy Access Control.
QUESTION NO: 132
Martha works as a Project Leader for BlueWell Inc. She and her team have developed accounting software. The software was performing well. Recently, the software has been modified. The users of this software are now complaining about the software not working properly. Which of the following actions will she take to test the software?
A. Perform integration testing
B. Perform regression testing
C. Perform unit testing
D. Perform acceptance testing
010-151 vce Answer: B
Explanation: Regression testing can be performed any time when a program needs to be modified either to add a feature or to fix an error. It is a process of repeating Unit testing and Integration testing whenever existing tests need to be performed again along with the new tests. Regression testing is performed to ensure that no existing errors reappear, and no new errors are introduced. Answer: D is incorrect. The acceptance testing is performed on the application before its implementation into the production environment. It is done either by a client or an application specialist to ensure that the software meets the requirement for which it was made. Answer: A is incorrect. Integration testing is a logical extension of unit testing. It is performed to identify the problems that occur when two or more units are combined into a component. During integration testing, a developer combines two units that have already been tested into a component, and tests the interface between the two units. Although integration testing can be performed in various ways, the following three approaches are generally used: The top-down approach The bottom-up approach The umbrella approach Answer: C is incorrect. Unit testing is a type of testing in which each independent unit of an application is tested separately. During unit testing, a developer takes the smallest unit of an application, isolates it from the rest of the application code, and tests it to determine whether it works as expected. Unit testing is performed before integrating these independent units into modules. The most common approach to unit testing requires drivers and stubs to be written. Drivers and stubs are programs. A driver simulates a calling unit, and a stub simulates a called unit.

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QUESTION NO: 117
Which of the following phases of the DITSCAP C&A process is used to define the C&A level of effort, to identify the main C&A roles and responsibilities, and to create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements?
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 4
C. Phase 2
D. Phase 3
210-255 exam Answer: A
Explanation: The Phase 1 of the DITSCAP C&A process is known as Definition Phase. The goal of this phase is to define the C&A level of effort, identify the main C&A roles and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements. Answer: C is incorrect.
The Phase 2 of the DITSCAP C&A process is known as Verification. Answer: D is incorrect.
The Phase 3 of the DITSCAP C&A process is known as Validation. Answer: B is incorrect.
The Phase 4 of the DITSCAP C&A process is known as Post Accreditation.
QUESTION NO: 118
Which of the following types of obfuscation transformation increases the difficulty for a de obfuscation tool so that it cannot extract the true application from the obfuscated version?
A. Preventive transformation
B. Data obfuscation
C. Control obfuscation
D. Layout obfuscation
Answer: A
Explanation: Preventive transformation increases the difficulty for a de-obfuscation tool so that it cannot extract the true application from the obfuscated version.
QUESTION NO: 119
Which of the following techniques is used when a system performs the penetration testing with the objective of accessing unauthorized information residing inside a computer?
A. Biometrician
B. Van Eck Phreaking
C. Port scanning
D. Phreaking
210-255 dumps Answer: C
Explanation: Port scanning identifies open doors to a computer. Hackers and crackers use this technique to obtain unauthorized information. Port scanning is the first basic step to get the details of open ports on the target system. Port scanning is used to find a hackable server with a hole or vulnerability. A port is a medium of communication between two computers. Every service on a host is identified by a unique 16-bit number called a port. A port scanner is a piece of software designed to search a network host for open ports. This is often used by administrators to check the security of their networks and by hackers to identify running services on a host with the view to compromising it. Port scanning is used to find the open ports, so that it is possible to search exploits related to that service and
application. Answer: D is incorrect. Phreaking is a process used to crack the phone system. The main aim of phreaking is to avoid paying for long- distance calls. As telephone networks have become computerized, phreaking has become closely linked with computer hacking. This is sometimes called the H/P culture (with H standing for Hacking and P standing for Phreaking).
Answer: A is incorrect. It is defined as a system using a physical attribute for authenticating. Only authorized users are provided access to network or application.
Answer: B is incorrect. It is described as a form of eavesdropping in which special equipments are used to pick up the telecommunication signals or data within a computer device.
QUESTION NO: 120
Which of the following types of attacks is targeting a Web server with multiple compromised computers that are simultaneously sending hundreds of FIN packets with spoofed IP source IP addresses?
A. DDoS attack
B. Evasion attack C.
Insertion attack D.
Dictionary attack
Answer: A
Explanation: A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack targets a Web server with multiple compromised computers that are simultaneously sending hundreds of FIN packets with spoofed IP source IP addresses. DDoS attack occurs when multiple compromised systems flood the bandwidth or resources of a targeted system, usually one or more Web servers. These systems are compromised by attackers using a variety of methods. It is an attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users. This type of attack can cause the following to occur: Saturate network resources. Disrupt connections between two computers, thereby preventing communications between services. Disrupt services on a specific computer.
Answer: D is incorrect. Dictionary attack is a type of password guessing attack. This type of attack uses a dictionary of common words to find out the password of a user. It can also use common words in either upper or lower case to find a password. There are many programs available on the Internet to automate and execute dictionary attacks.
Answer: C is incorrect. In an insertion attack, an IDS accepts a packet and assumes that the host computer will also accept it. But in reality, when a host system rejects the packet, the IDS accepts the attacking string that will exploit vulnerabilities in the IDS. Such attacks can badly infect IDS signatures and IDS signature analysis.
Answer: B is incorrect. An evasion attack is one in which an IDS rejects a malicious packet but the host computer accepts it. Since an IDS has rejected it, it does not check the contents of the packet. Hence, using this technique, an attacker can exploit the host computer. In many cases, it is quite simple for an attacker to send such data packets that can easily perform evasion attacks on an IDSs.
QUESTION NO: 121
Which of the following programming languages are compiled into machine code and directly executed by the CPU of a computer system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. C
B. Microosft.NET
C. Java EE
D. C++
210-255 pdf Answer: A,D
Explanation: C and C++ programming languages are unmanaged code. Unmanaged code is compiled into machine code and directly executed by the CPU of a computer system. Answer: C and B are incorrect. Java EE and Microsoft.Net are compiled into an intermediate code format.
QUESTION NO: 122
Which of the following is a standard that sets basic requirements for assessing the effectiveness of computer security controls built into a computer system?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS
C. TCSEC
D. SSAA
Answer: C
Explanation: Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) is a United States Government Department of Defense (DoD) standard that sets basic requirements for assessing the effectiveness of computer security controls built into a computer system. TCSEC was used to evaluate, classify, and select computer systems being considered for the processing, storage, and retrieval of sensitive or classified information. It was replaced with the development of the Common Criteria international standard originally published in 2005. The TCSEC, frequently referred to as the Orange Book, is the centerpiece of the DoD Rainbow Series publications.
Answer: D is incorrect. System Security Authorization Agreement (SSAA) is an information security document used in the United States Department of Defense (DoD) to describe and accredit networks and systems. The SSAA is part of the Department of Defense Information Technology Security Certification and Accreditation Process, or DITSCAP (superseded by DIACAP). The DoD instruction (issues in December 1997, that describes DITSCAP and provides an outline for the SSAA document is DODI 5200.40. The DITSCAP application manual (DoD 8510.1- M), published in July 2000, provides additional details. Answer: A is incorrect. FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a methodology for assessing the security of information systems. It provides an approach for federal agencies. It determines how federal agencies are meeting existing policy and establish goals. The main advantage of FITSAF is that it addresses the requirements of Office of Management and Budget (OMB). It also addresses the guidelines provided by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIsT).
Answer: B is incorrect. The Federal Information Processing Standards (FIPS) are publicly announced standards developed by the United States federal government for use by all non-military government agencies and by government contractors. Many FIPS standards are modified versions of standards used in the wider community (ANSI, IEEE, ISO, etc.). Some FIPS standards were originally developed by the U.S. government. For instance, standards for encoding data (e.g., country codes), but more significantly some encryption standards, such as the Data Encryption Standard (FIPS 46-3) and the Advanced Encryption Standard (FIPS 197). In 1994, NOAA (Noaa) began broadcasting coded signals called FIPS (Federal Information Processing System) codes along with their standard weather broadcasts from local stations. These codes identify the type of emergency and the specific geographic area (such as a county) affected by the emergency.
QUESTION NO: 123
Which of the following elements of BCP process includes the areas of plan implementation, plan testing, and ongoing plan maintenance, and also involves defining and documenting the continuity strategy?
A. Business continuity plan development
B. Business impact assessment
C. Scope and plan initiation
D. Plan approval and implementation
210-255 vce Answer: A
Explanation: The business continuity plan development refers to the utilization of the information collected in the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) for the creation of the recovery strategy plan to support the critical business functions. The information gathered from the BIA is mapped out to make a strategy for creating a continuity plan. The business continuity plan development process includes the areas of plan implementation, plan testing, and ongoing plan maintenance. This phase also consists of defining and documenting the continuity strategy. Answer: C is incorrect. The scope and plan initiation process in BCP symbolizes the beginning of the BCP process. It emphasizes on creating the scope and the additional elements required to define the parameters of the plan. The scope and plan initiation phase embodies a check of the company’s operations and support services. The scope activities include creating a detailed account of the work
required, listing the resources to be used, and defining the management practices to be employed.
Answer: B is incorrect. The business impact assessment is a method used to facilitate business units to understand the impact of a disruptive event. This phase includes the execution of a vulnerability assessment. This process makes out the mission-critical areas and business processes that are important for the survival of business. It is similar to the risk assessment process. The function of a business impact assessment process is to create a document, which is used to help and understand what impact a disruptive event would have on the business.
Answer: D is incorrect. The plan approval and implementation process involves creating enterprise-wide awareness of the plan, getting the final senior management signoff, and implementing a maintenance procedure for updating the plan as required.
QUESTION NO: 124
Which of the following refers to a process that is used for implementing information security?
A. Classic information security model
B. Five Pillars model
C. Certification and Accreditation (C&A)
D. Information Assurance (IA)
Answer: C
Explanation: Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. The C&A process is used extensively
in the U.S. Federal Government. Some C&A processes include FISMA, NIACAP, DIACAP, and DCID 6/3. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system, made in support of security accreditation, to determine the extent to which the controls are implemented correctly, operating as intended, and producing the desired outcome with respect to meeting the security requirements for the system. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system and to explicitly accept the risk to agency operations (including
mission, functions, image, or reputation), agency assets, or individuals, based on the implementation of an agreed-upon set of security controls. Answer: D is incorrect. Information Assurance (IA) is the practice of managing risks related to the use, processing, storage, and
transmission of information or data and the systems and processes used for those purposes. While focused dominantly on information in digital form, the full range of IA encompasses not only digital but also analog or physical form. Information assurance as a field has grown from the practice of information security, which in turn grew out of practices and procedures of computer security.
Answer: A is incorrect. The classic information security model is used in the practice of Information Assurance (IA) to define assurance requirements. The classic information security model, also called the CIA Triad, addresses three attributes of information and information systems, confidentiality, integrity, and availability. This C-I-A model is extremely useful for teaching introductory and basic concepts of information security and assurance; the initials are an easy mnemonic to remember, and when properly understood, can prompt systems designers and users to address the most pressing aspects of assurance. Answer: B is incorrect. The Five Pillars model is used in the practice of Information Assurance (IA) to define assurance requirements. It was promulgated by the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) in a variety of publications, beginning with the National Information Assurance Glossary, Committee on National Security Systems Instruction CNSSI-4009. Here is the definition from that publication: “Measures that protect and defend information and information systems by ensuring their availability, integrity, authentication, confidentiality, and non-repudiation. These measures include providing for restoration of information systems by incorporating protection, detection, and reaction capabilities.” The Five Pillars model is sometimes criticized because authentication and non-repudiation are not attributes of information or systems; rather, they are procedures or methods useful to assure the integrity and authenticity of information, and to protect the confidentiality of the same.

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What are the topics covered in Cisco 300-370 dumps exam? The Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (300-370 WITSHOOT) exam is a 90 Minutes (60 – 70 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNP Wireless certification. New release Cisco 300-370 dumps exam CCNP Wireless certification guaranteed success. “Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 300-370 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 300-370 exam. The https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-370.html dumps Cisco CCIE Routing and Switching written exam validate that professionals have the expertise to: configure, validate, and troubleshoot complex enterprise network infrastructure; understand how infrastructure components interoperate; and translate functional requirements into specific device configurations.

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Share Some Cisco Specialist 300-370 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 31
Which statement about the join process of the access point is true? Refer to the exhibit.

A. The time on the controller is outside of the certificates validity time interval, so the join phase failed.
B. The AP successfully joined the controller.
C. The AP moved from this controller to its primary controller.
D. The AP failed to join because the MAC address of the AP was not correct on the controller.
E. The controller rejected all discovery requests from the AP because they were not received on the management interface subnet.
300-370 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 32
Some users are experiencing inconsistent performance on their mobile devices as they move throughout the building when browsing the Internet. Which feature provides a more consistent user experiences?
A. low RSSI check
B. 802.11r
C. RX-SOP
D. optimized roaming
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
A mobile station in a factory contains an AP configured as a work group bridge that authenticates to a root AP using EAP-FAST. To be able to use the mobile station in further parts of the factory, another root AP is installed and also configured for EAP-FAST When the mobile station is attempting to roam to the other AP, it loses connection yet can still authenticate to the first one. What is the cause for the failed authentication on RAP2?
Refer to the exhibit.

QUESTION NO: 34
If you needed to replicate flow from a router and forward it in its native format to additional flow collectors, which Cascade device would you use?
A. Sensor
B. Express
C. Shark
D. Gateway
E. Gateway-VE
300-370 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
What is a benefit that Cascade provides that is not supported by most other network performance management solutions?
A. Identity integration to identify which users are logged into which client machines.
B. Integration with synthetic transaction tools to obtain response time information.
C. A fully functional CLI that is easier to use than a Web based GUI.
D. A Web based GUI that does not require a password or HTTPS connection allowing for easier connection.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
To which devices is it possible to send data directly to (not including flows from other Cascade devices)? (Select 2)
A. Sensor
B. Sensor-VE
C. Gateway
D. Profiler
E. Enterprise Profiler
F. Express
300-370 pdf Answer: C,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
Which of the following statements is true regarding SNMP polling and NTP syncing among Cascade components?
A. Cascade Gateway’s poll Netflow sources via SNMP, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
B. Cascade Profiler’s poll Netflow sources via SNMP, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP a common source.
C. Cascade Profiler’s poll Netflow sources via SNMP, while Cascade Profiler is the NTP source for Cascade Gateways and Cascade Sensors.
D. Cascade Gateway’s poll Netflow sources via SNMP, while Cascade Profiler is the NTP source for Cascade Gateways, Cascade Sensors and Cascade Sharks.
E. SNMP polling is not supported in Cascade.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 38
You can apply a View within Cascade Pilot to a trace clip:
A. If both the trace clip and View support indexing.
B. If the trace clip is not indexed and the View does not support indexing.
C. Any time you like.
D. If the capture job is running.
300-370 vce Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
What are the features available in Cascade Pilot that are NOT available in Cascade Pilot Personal Edition (PE)? (Select 3)
A. Drill down from Cascade Profiler
B. Indexing files for fast analysis
C. Visual troubleshooting and analysis
D. Distributed capture and analysis (Cascade Shark appliance)
E. Application Transaction diagrams
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40
What is lost by using sFlow and not NetFlow for Cascade?
A. Nothing; sFlow actually provides better data to Cascade since it is sampled packets and not just header data.
B. A loss of granularity as sFlow is sampled and doesn’t see every packet of a conversation.
C. Since Cascade takes the sampling rate of sFlow into account, nothing is lost.
D. sFlow should be configured to obtain granularity.
300-370 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
What two methods does the Profiler have for getting MAC address information? (Select 2)
A. SMTP integration
B. SNMP integration
C. DHCP integration
D. There is only one method of getting MAC address information.
E. Line monitoring for ARP requests
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
A capture job definition on Cascade Shark appliance may include:
A. A packet filter
B. A disk space allocation
C. One capture port or one aggregated port
D. Trend/indexing parameters
E. All of the above
300-370 dumps Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 43
When specifying the time-frame of a traffic report in Cascade Profiler, what happens when one selects a data resolution of automatic?
A. The Cascade Profiler determines the appropriate resolution to use, based on the time-frame selected.
B. The report runs from 1 minute flows if a flow list is selected from the report format options.
C. The resulting report indicates the data resolution the report was generated from.
D. The resulting report runs against Profiler periods instead of flow logs.
E. All of the above.
F. A, B, C only.
Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
To receive external notification for Cascade Profiler Alerts:
A. SMTP or SNMP must be configured.
B. I have to have an account on Cascade.
C. Lotus Notes has to be installed.
D. I need a Riverbed e-mail account.
300-370 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
What is the maximum number of flows a Profiler Express is licensed to process?
A. 25,000 flows per minute
B. 50,000 flows per minute
C. 75,000 flows per minute
D. 100,000 flows per minute
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
When Cascade Pilot is connected to Cascade Shark:
A. Cascade Shark interfaces and captures job traces appear under the devices tab within the sources panel.
B. Cascade Shark interfaces appear under the devices tab of the sources panel AND Cascade Shark capture job traces appear under the files tab of the sources panel.
C. Cascade Shark interfaces and captures job traces appear in the views panel.
D. Cascade Shark interfaces must be selected from the home menu to begin a capture.
300-370 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
How are trace clips created in Cascade Pilot? (Select 2)
A. Select a Capture Job, right-click, and select “Create Trace Clip”.
B. Drag a bar from a Bar Chart to the Capture Job.
C. Click the + button in the Capture Job item and select a time window.
D. Select a time window and apply a Cascade Pilot filter.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
Protocols that are typically monitored in TCP/IP networks by visibility tools include (Select 3):
A. SAN HBA Protocol
B. TCP Protocols such as HTTP and HTTPS
C. UDP Protocols such as SMTP and Video streaming
D. IPv4 Protocols including TCP, UDP, and ICMP
E. IPv4 Protocols such as x.25, TTY and TTL
300-370 exam Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 49
What is the maximum capacity of a Standard Cascade Profiler appliance in terms of the number of IP flows that it can process?
A. 100,000 Flows per Minute
B. 200,000 Flows per Minute
C. 300,000 Flows per Minute
D. 400,000 Flows per Minute
E. 500,000 Flows per Minute
F. 600,000 Flows per Minute
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
Which of the following are valid Cascade Profiler Report export formats? (Select 3)
A. XML
B. PDF
C. CSV
D. EDI
E. HTML
300-370 dumps Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
What are the Cascade Profiler Alert Levels?
A. Low and High
B. Emergency, Critical, Alert, Error, Warning, Notice, Informational, and Debug
C. Critical, Warning, and Informational
D. System Down, System Impaired, Attack, SLA/SLO Violation, and Security Policy Violation
E. Low, Med, and High
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
In the Cascade Profiler GUI, which Definitions can be used when running a query?
A. Applications
B. TCP Ports C.
Port Groups D.
QoS Name
E. Host Group Name
F. All the above
300-370 pdf Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53
What is the maximum number of 1GB capture ports that can be provisioned on the Cascade Shark appliance model CSK-03200?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
E. 12
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 54
On Cascade Profiler, Why would you want to create a generic group encompassing the 0.0.0.0/0 definition?
A. There is no reason to create this definition.
B. This definition can be used to look for all hosts on the network that are not in other groups.
C. This definition can be used to identify hosts that have incorrect IP address assignments.
D. This definition can be used to look for all hosts on the internal network that are not in other groups within the same group type.
E. This definition can be used to look for all hosts on the internal network that are not in other groups in any group type.
300-370 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
In the Cascade Profiler, what best describes a “Host Group”?
A. A logical collection of IP Addresses that can be grouped by region, application, and function.
B. A set of netflow collectors.
C. NetFlow senders.
D. A group of Ports.
E. A collection of MAC Addresses.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 56
When flows in excess of the licensed limit are received by a Profiler what happens to them?
A. They are cached for later processing.
B. They are ignored/dropped.
C. The user is able to choose which flows to keep and which to ignore.
D. All flows are processed but an alert is sent to the user.
300-370 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 57
What is the maximum number of capture jobs that can be created on a Cascade Shark appliance?
A. 1
B. 4
C. Equal to the maximum number of capture ports on the appliance
D. One capture job per capture port
E. Unlimited
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 58
Which of the following pieces of information is required when configuring an Cascade Enterprise Profiler?
A. BGP AS number
B. IP address of Sensor
C. Default gateway of Internet router
D. Subnet mask for entire corporate network
E. Subnet mask for all Cascade Enterprise Profiler modules
300-370 dumps Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 59
Where are Application Names used within the Cascade Profiler GUI?
A. On Dashboards
B. In Reports
C. In User Defined Policies
D. In Application Performance Policies
E. All of the above
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 60
Within Cascade Profiler, how can you create a definition that includes list of tcp ports?
A. Definitions->Host Groups
B. Definitions->Applications->Layer-7
C. Definitions->Port Groups
D. Definitions->Port Names
E. Integration->Switch Port Discovery
300-370 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 61
What are the primary differences between an Express and Standard Profiler?
A. There is no difference between an Express and Standard Profiler.
B. An Express Profiler has the option only for a built-in Sensor and cannot receive flow data.
C. A Standard Profiler has the option only for a built-in Sensor and cannot receive flow data.
D. An Express Profiler can handle more flows per minute then a Standard Profiler.
E. An Express Profiler has a built in Sensor and Gateway.
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 62
In the Cascade Profiler GUI, how frequently is the dashboard refreshed by default?
A. Every 15 seconds
B. Every 15 minutes
C. Every 5 minutes D.
Every 1 minute
E. Every 1 hour
300-370 vce Answer: D
Explanation:

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Now is a shiny new laptop market, which is a good time to buy one. Apple’s recently launched new portable MacBook lineup gives them some extra cheer.Microsoft has launched a surface laptop in the UK. Microsoft’s latest Windows-driven machine is designed to deliver quality specifications and designs at a more affordable price. And, over the last few weeks, our bags have been packed with this device, and StarTech can say that if you like everything about Microsoft, it’s definitely worth considering.

Windows laptops are rarely described as sexy, but the first thing you’ll notice is how good surface looks. The stylish aluminum fuselage, with embossed windows logos, gives surface an advanced feeling when you pull it out of the bag. Microsoft also managed to keep the new surface relatively light.

By opening this gadget, you will be subject to another stylish design feature, which is covered with Alcantara fabric. This luxurious material is used in automobiles, airplanes and furniture, and provides a powerful cover. It may seem strange to cover a laptop with cloth, but in fact it feels luxurious. Microsoft says it can also be cleaned up-although we have to reconfirm it before using it.

Surface has a fast Intel Core processor and up to 512GB of hard disk space. The 13-inch Pixelsense touchscreen is a beautiful thing that shows the bright, colorful, sharp content. With the beautiful display, there are some delicious speakers hidden under the keyboard. Battery life also makes competitors cry because it lasts more than 14 hours without needing to be near the plug. There’s also a smart security feature that unlocks your laptop through your face-so you don’t need to remember your password. There is no doubt that Microsoft has used surface to create something worth your money, but before you get your wallet, there are some minor problems.

First of all, this laptop lacks some important ports, only a standard USB and Minidisplay port. Then the touchpad can only be described as feeling cheap, annoying and unpleasant to use. Finally, surface also comes with the Windows ten s operating system. The new operating system is designed to make it easier to use Microsoft’s popular operating system, and only applications and programs approved by Windows can be installed through the official store. There are many positive aspects to using Windows Ten, including keeping your laptop virus-free and not clogging up with cunning software. But it also means you can’t download popular programs like Google Chrome, Photoshop or many PC owners love games. Users of surface laptops can upgrade to the full and unlocked versions of Windows 10 free of charge.

Microsoft plans to end the free Windows 10 Assistive technology upgrade on December 31, eventually upgrading to Windows 10 free of charge. Microsoft ended the free upgrade service for all users on July 29, 2016, a year when Windows 10 was officially released. However, the company does allow assistive technicians to upgrade free of charge. Now, Microsoft is planning to turn off the free upgrade service for users who use assistive technology. This means that everyone now has the last chance to upgrade to Windows 10. After December 31, no one can use this vulnerability to upgrade to Windows 10.

Prediction:
With its excellent performance, stunning screen and design, surface is worth considering as a portable PC. Microsoft has created a notebook computer that you like to use.

Edge:
The surface of the notebook computer is entirely in line with expectations. I think this is the new de facto Windows laptop that most people want a Windows laptop to get-as long as they can afford to spend 1300 of dollars in upgrade mode. It creates a perfect balance of power, portability, practicality and design for most people; Although the price is slightly higher than the direct competitor. It’s thin, but not so thin, powerful, but not crazy. Microsoft just chose to do the obvious, right thing with this laptop over and over again, even if it’s a bit boring. Then he put a rug on it and tuned it up. I hope Microsoft has done a good job on this hardware and it does. But my other expectation for surface laptops is that I can’t really get the apps I need from the Windows App Store, and I’m right. If you buy this laptop, you will eventually upgrade to Windows Pro.

There is a thinner Windows notebook computer. There is a cheaper Windows notebook computer. There is a more powerful Windows notebook computer. But all these laptops require you to make more uncomfortable compromises than surface laptops.

Pocket Lint:
The Microsoft Surface Book is a very interesting notebook computer. It looks gorgeous, built very well, and comes with a blocked version of Windows, and all the costs are considerable. In this regard, the education sector will be mistaken in this matter. However, upgraded to Windows Pro (free in 2017), Surface laptop is a powerful, mute operator with a very good screen and good battery time. We will choose the entry-level surface Pro, because if you specialize in laptops, then you’ll get more money.

But money is a problem here, because surface laptops are far from easy. Depending on what you see, it is not necessarily a trading circuit breaker. As a competitor to the Chromebook elite, it is as expensive as Google Chromebook Pixel did a few years ago. As a regular laptop or MacBook competitor, Surface laptop is a great machine for many people. If we’re going to buy a Windows machine tomorrow, it’s surface Laptop. This is just a ready-made version of the software we think, but it’s easy to correct.

TECH RADAR
Microsoft is gaining a reputation for demonstrating its Windows software with solid, attractive, and generally satisfying high-end products, while Surface’s laptop continues. Thin and lightweight design makes it easy to carry, and meticulous component considerations as well as high-quality building materials make it fun to use. This is clearly a tool that Microsoft’s designers and engineers spend a lot of time on, and most of it has been rewarded well. This is one of the most good-looking windows devices on the market, and, thanks to some pretty specs, a carefully controlled Windows 10 operating system, it is also one of the most fluent experiences in Windows. If you use Microsoft’s core tools and you can find everything you need in the Windows store, you’ll be in love with surface laptops. The ability to upgrade to Windows Pro is welcome for those who are concerned that Windows is too strict, and for many people this will make the device more useful and flexible.

But this is not perfect, and there are some design choices that hinder its true greatness. The lack of usb-c is disappointing for this forward-looking device, and the lack of a port means you may have to resort to a USB adapter hub to plug in a variety of devices. You also pay a premium for this product-so there is a more powerful (but less visually appealing) laptop for the same price-or cheaper. At the same time, laptop glue and soldered cosmetics will let consumers even just wonder if anything is broken and their expensive gadgets can easily be fixed securely by people.

For now, if something breaks down, you may have to replace your surface laptop completely, even with a simpler, cheaper fix than other laptops. If you have completely purchased the ecosystem of Microsoft and want a lightweight laptop, and this laptop can perform at the least thrilling performance, then we can recommend surface laptops wholeheartedly. However, if you want more control over what is running on your machine, there are other ways to better meet your needs.

Releated Microsoft News Article Link:https://www.dailystar.co.uk/tech/news/663953/Microsoft-Surface-Laptop-REVIEW-best-Windows-Laptop-2017

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QUESTION 13
Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope?
A. Reservations
B. Lease times
C. Removing IPs from the active leases
D. Configuring the DNS options
N10-005 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Reservations are permanent lease assignments that are used to ensure that a specified client on a subnet can always use the same IP address. You can use DHCP reservations for hosts that require a consistent IP address, but do not need to be statically configured.
QUESTION 14
Spanning-Tree Protocol is used with which of the following network devices?
A. Router
B. NIC
C. Switch
D. DHCP server
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 protocol that runs on bridges and switches. The specification for STP is IEEE 802.1D. The main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not create loops when you have redundant paths in your network. Loops are deadly to a network.
QUESTION 15
A technician wants to separate networks on a switch. Which of the following should be configured to allow this?
A. VLAN
B. Trunking
C. Spanning tree
D. Traffic filtering
N10-005 dump Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A VLAN is a group of end stations in a switched network that is logically segmented by function, project team, or application, without regard to the physical locations of the users. VLANs have the same attributes as physical LANs, but you can group end stations even if they are not physically located on the same LAN segment.
QUESTION 16
A user wants to connect seven PCs together for a game night. Which of the following should the user install to help with this task?
A. Media convertor
B. Switch
C. Firewall
D. Bridge
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
They connect multiple PCs, printers, servers and other hardware. Switches allow you to send information, such as email, and access shared resources, including printers, in a smooth, efficient, and transparent manner.
QUESTION 17
Which of the following defines the amount of time a host retains a specific IP address before it is renewed or released?
A. DHCP lease
B. DNS suffix
C. Subnet mask
D. DHCP reservation
N10-005 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, each IP address assigned by a DHCP Server comes with a one-day lease, which is the amount of time that the address is valid.
QUESTION 18
Users are reporting that some Internet websites are not accessible anymore. Which of the following will allow the network administrator to quickly isolate the remote router that is causing the network communication issue, so that the problem can be reported to the appropriate responsible party?
A. Ping
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Tracert
D. Dig
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Tracet command will tell the administrator which route is not present or which is present so he will come to know whether he has appropriate route or not.
QUESTION 19
Ann, a new user, has a workstation that has connectivity to the printer located in her department, but cannot access the Internet. The result of an ipconfig command on Ann’s workstation is as follows: Which is MOST likely preventing the user from accessing the Internet?
A. Duplicate IP address
B. Incorrect gateway
C. Incorrect VLAN
D. Bad switch port
N10-005 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
We usually give default gateway as an end device which is directly connected with ISP so in this case user has lost his connectivity with due to wrong default gateway configured.
QUESTION 20
Which of the following is the common port used for IMAP?
A. 25
B. 53
C. 143
D. 443
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Internet Message Access Protocol (commonly known as IMAP) is an Application Layer Internet protocol that allows an e-mail client to access e-mail on a remote mail server. The current version, IMAP version 4 revision 1 (IMAP4rev1), is defined by RFC 3501. An IMAP server typically listens on well-known port 143
QUESTION 21
Which of the following network protocols is used to resolve FQDNs to IP addresses?
A. DNS
B. FTP
C. DHCP
D. APIPA
N10-005 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An Internet service that translates domain names into IP addresses. Because domain names are alphabetic, they’re easier to remember. The Internet however, is really based on IP addresses. Every time you use a domain name, therefore, a DNS service must translate the name into the corresponding IP address.
QUESTION 22
Which of the following network protocols is used to transport email between servers?
A. IMAP4
B. POP3
C. SNMP
D. SMTP
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
While electronic mail servers and other mail transfer agents use SMTP to send and receive mail messages, user-level client mail applications typically use SMTP
only for sending messages to a mail server for relaying
QUESTION 23
Ann, a technician, installs a new WAP and users are able to connect; however, users cannot access the Internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The signal strength has been degraded and latency is increasing hop count.
B. An incorrect subnet mask has been entered in the WAP configuration.
C. The signal strength has been degraded and packets are being lost.
D. Users have specified the wrong encryption type and routes are being rejected.
N10-005 dump Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Due to wrong subnet entered user is unable to communicate with anyone so to communicate he needs to be in right subnet.

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QUESTION 1
During performance testing, you discover that database INSERT operations against the Inventory table are slow. You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to complete the INSERT operations.What should you recommend?
A. Partition the nonclustered index.
B. Partition the Inventory table.snapshot replication
C. Create a column store index.Master Data Services
D. Drop the clustered index.change data capture
70-465 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Scenario: Database2 will contain a table named Inventory. Inventory will contain over 100 GB of data. The Inventory table will have two indexes: a clustered index on the primary key and a nonclustered index. The column that is used as the primary key will use the identity property.
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a solution to allow application users to perform tables. The solution must meet the business requirements. What should you recommend?
A. Create a Policy-Based Management Policy.
B. Create a user-defined database role and add users to the role.
C. Create stored procedures that use EXECUTE AS clauses.
D. Create functions that use EXECUTE AS clauses.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* EXECUTE AS Clause (Transact-SQL)
In SQL Server you can define the execution context of the following user-defined modules: functions (except inline table-valued functions), procedures, queues, and triggers.
QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a feature to support your backup solution.What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)
B. Column-level encryption
C. An NTFS file permission
D. A Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
70-465 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario: · You must encrypt the backup files to meet regulatory compliance requirements. The encryption strategy must minimize changes to the databases and to the applications.
* Transparent data encryption (TDE) performs real-time I/O encryption and decryption of the data and log files. The encryption uses a database encryption key (DEK), which is stored in the database boot record for availability during recovery.
QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a solution for Application1 that meets the security requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Signed stored procedures
B. Certificate Authentication
C. Encrypted columns
D. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario:
/ Data from Database2 will be accessed periodically by an external application named Application1 / Application developers must be denied direct access to the database tables. Applications must be denied direct access to the tables.
QUESTION 5
You need to recommend a disk monitoring solution that meets the business requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. An audit
B. A dynamic management view
C. A maintenance plan
D. A SQL Server Agent alert
70-465 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You need to recommend a solution to improve the performance of usp.UpdateInventory. The solution must minimize the amount of development effort. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A table variable
B. A common table expression
C. A subquery
D. A cursor
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*Scenario: Database2 will contain a stored procedure named usp_UpdateInventory. Usp_UpdateInventory will manipulate a table that contains a self-join that has an unlimited number of hierarchies.
* A table variable can be very useful to store temporary data and return the data in the table format.
* Example: The following example uses a self-join to find the products that are supplied by more than one vendor.
Because this query involves a join of the ProductVendor table with itself, the ProductVendor table appears in two roles. To distinguish these roles, you must give the ProductVendor table two different aliases (pv1 and pv2) in the FROM clause. These aliases are used to qualify the column names in the rest of the query. This is an example of the self-join Transact-SQL statement: USE AdventureWorks2008R2;
GO
SELECT DISTINCT pv1.ProductID, pv1.VendorID
FROM Purchasing.ProductVendor pv1
INNER JOIN Purchasing.ProductVendor pv2
ON pv1.ProductID = pv2.ProductID
AND pv1.VendorID <> pv2.VendorID
ORDER BY pv1.ProductID
Incorrect:
Not B: Using a CTE offers the advantages of improved readability and ease in maintenance of complex queries. The query can be divided into separate, simple, logical building blocks. These simple blocks can then be used to build more complex, interim CTEs until the final result set is generated.
QUESTION 7
You need to recommend a solution for the deployment of SQL Server 2014. The solution must meet the business requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Create a new instance of SQL Server 2014 on the server that hosts the SQL Server 2008 instance.
B. Upgrade the existing SQL Server 2008 instance to SQL Server 2014.
C. Deploy two servers that have SQL Server 2014 installed and implement Failover Clustering.
D. Deploy two servers that have SQL Server 2014 installed and implement database mirroring.
70-465 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Scenario: The databases must be available if the SQL Server service fails.
QUESTION 8
You need to recommend a solution to synchronize Database2 to App1_Db1. What should you recommend?
A. Change data capture
B. Snapshot replication
C. Master Data Services
D. Transactional replication
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Scenario:
* Data from Database2 will be accessed periodically by an external application named Application1. The data from Database2 will be sent to a database named App1_Db1 as soon as changes occur to the data in Database2.
* All data in Database2 is recreated each day and does not change until the next data creation process.

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How can I find the Cisco 210-065 dump with correct answers? The Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0 (210-065 CIVND) exam is a 75 minutes (55 – 65 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNA Collaboration Cisco Video Network Specialist certification.”Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 210-065 dump test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 210-065 exam. Latest Cisco CIVND 210-065 dump vce CCNA Collaboration exam questions in the Cisco Learning Network with Cisco video online.

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Share Some Cisco Specialist 210-065 Dump Exam Questions and Answers Below:
QUESTION 1
When configuring the Cisco TelePresence System 500 with a static IP address, where should the IP address be configured?
A. in Cisco Unified Communications Manager after adding the Cisco TelePresence System 500 manually
B. in the Cisco TelePresence System Administration tool
C. in the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite after the Cisco TelePresence System 500 was added under systems
D. Static IP address configuration is not possible. Only a DHCP-provided IP address is supported.
E. using the on-screen display
210-065 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
A customer requests a configuration that enables users to easily add a third party to an existing call. The environment contains only three Cisco TelePresence C40 codecs and one Cisco VCS. To achieve the customer\’s requirements, which feature should be added?
A. Cisco MultiWay
B. Cisco TelePresence Conductor
C. Cisco TMS
D. Cisco Multisite
E. Cisco VCS Expressway
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

Which CLI command should be run to resolve these alarms on a Cisco VCS?
A. xcommand DefaultValuesSet
B. xconfiguration DefaultLinksAdd
C. xcommand DefaultLinksAdd
D. xconfiguration DefaultValuesSet
210-065 dump Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Video Surveillance product contains the Cisco Video Surveillance Encoding Server?
A. Video Communications Server
B. Cisco Video Surveillance Operations Manager
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Transcoding and Encoding Server
E. Cisco Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
When you configure a zone for firewall traversal, which type of zone is the Cisco VCS-C configured for?
A. client
B. server
C. proxy
D. gateway
E. neighbor
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
An engineer is deploying a Cisco TelePresence Touch 8 controller for a Cisco TelePresence SX20. Which two steps are required as part of this process? (Choose two.)
A. Connect the cable from the Touch 8 controller to the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
B. Connect the Touch 8 controller to the power adapter and connect the adapter to the network.
C. Connect the Touch 8 controller to the secondary network adapter on the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
D. Reboot the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
E. Hold the mute button down for 20 seconds while you power on the Touch 8 controller.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 7
Which three of these are functions of the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose three.)
A. automatic software update and release keys
B. intelligent call routing engine
C. provisioning a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint
D. tracing SIP and H.323 calls
E. managing phonebooks for endpoints that are registered to the Cisco Unified Cisco Unified Communications Manager
F. rebooting endpoints that are registered to the Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server
210-065 vce Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 8
You are checking a DHCP server configuration for video endpoints. What is the role of option 150 in the configuration?
A. It is the NTP server IPv4 address.
B. It is not necessary to specify the role of option 150.
C. It is the TFTP server IPv4 address.
D. It is the TFTP server IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
A technician is trying to pair a Touch 8 with a Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint, but the codec is not automatically
listed in the touch panel. What are two possible reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)
A. The codec firmware version is below version TC 6.1.
B. The codec and the Touch 8 are on separate subnets.
C. Pairing visibility mode is not active on the codec.
D. The codec is not compatible with a Touch 8 device.
E. The Touch 8 is connected via the second Ethernet port on the codec.
210-065 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 10
A customer owns three Codian 5300 MCUs with several video endpoints. Users complain that they are getting
multipoint control unit port capacity errors when scheduling video conferences in Cisco TMS. What can be done to
correct these errors automatically?
A. Enable the Automatic MCU Cascading option in the Cisco TMS Conference Settings.
B. Install a Cascading option key on the Cisco TMS server.
C. Install a Cisco TelePresence Conductor server.
D. Install cascaded multipoint control units.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

When the administrator clicks the ticket number of any of the open tickets, which two actions are presented to the
administrator? (Choose two.)
A. ignore ticket
B. acknowledge ticket
C. delete ticket
D. close ticket
E. escalate ticket
210-065 dump Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 12
Which bridge solution requires Cisco TelePresence Conductor?
A. Cisco TelePresence Server operating in remotely managed mode
B. Cisco TelePresence Server operating in locally managed mode
C. Cisco TelePresence MCU operating in remotely managed mode
D. Cisco TelePresence MCU operating in locally managed mode
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
On the Cisco VCS-E, what is the default port number for the H.323 connection on the first traversal zone between a Cisco VCS-C and Cisco VCS-E?
A. 1719
B. 1720
C. 5060
D. 6001
E. 7001
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which option is the embedded component that enables endpoints and collaboration applications to support medianet functionality?
A. Media Services Interface
B. Open API
C. XMPP
D. SNMP
E. Medianet Agent
F. SDN
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit Layout view mode gives prominence to one conference participant over the other conference participants while still allowing conference participants to view multiple participants at the same time?
A. enhanced continuous presence
B. active speaker
C. continuous presence
D. room switching
E. speaker switching
210-065 vce Correct Answer: A

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