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Share Some Microsoft Specialist 70-742 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below(1-13)
QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. IPAM uses a Windows Internal Database.
You install Microsoft SQL Server on Server1.
You plan to move the IPAM database to SQL Server.
You need to create a SQL Server login for the IPAM service account.
For which user should you create the login? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

70-742 exam Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For you convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario.You work for a company named Contoso, Ltd.
The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. A forest trust exists between contoso.com and an Active Directory forest named adatum.com. The contoso.com forest contains the objects configured as shown in the following table.

Group1 and Group2 contain only user accounts. Contoso hires a new remote user named User3. User3 will work from home and will use a computer named Computer3 that runs Windows 10. Computer3 is currently in a workgroup. An administrator named Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group in the contoso.com domain. From Active Directory Users and Computers, you create an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 in the contoso.com domain, and then you create a contact named Contact1 in OU1.
An administrator of the adatum.com domain runs the Set-ADUser cmdlet to configure a user named User1 to have a user logon name of [email protected]. End or repeated scenario. You need to join Computer3 to the contoso.com domain by using offline domain join. Which command should you use in the contoso.com domain and on Computer3? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. Server2 and Server3 have the DHCP Server role installed and have several DHCP scopes configured. The IPAM server retrieves data from Server2 and Server3.
A domain user named User1 is a member of the groups shown in the following table.

On Server1, you create a security policy for User1. The policy grants the IPAM DHCP Scope Administrator Role with the \Global access scope to the user. Which actions can User1 perform? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

70-742 dumps Correct Answer:

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated scenario. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a single site named Site1. All computers are in Site1. The Group Policy objects (GPOs) for the domain are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

The relevant users and client computer in the domain are configured as shown in the following table.

End of repeated scenario. You plan to enforce the GPO link for A6. Which five GPOs will apply to User1 in sequence when the user signs in to Computer1 after the link is enforced? To answer, move the appropriate GPOs from the list of GPOs to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. Server2 has the DHCP Server role installed. The IPAM server retrieves data from Server2. You create a domain user account named User1. You need to ensure that User1 can use IPAM to manage DHCP. Which command should you run on Server1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

70-742 pdf Correct Answer:

QUESTION 6
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Web Application Proxy role service installed.
You are publishing an application named App1 that will use Integrated Windows authentication as shown in the following graphic.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer area choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. Your company has a custom application named ERP1. ERP1 uses an Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD LDS) server named Server1 to authenticate users. You have a member server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2016. You install the Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) server role on Server2 and create an AD FS farm. You need to configure AD FS to authenticate users from the AD LDS server. Which cmdlets should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

70-742 vce Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest functional level is Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to ensure that a domain administrator can recover a deleted Active Directory object quickly. Which tool should you use?
A. Dsadd quota
B. Dsmod
C. Active Directory Administrative Center
D. Dsacls
E. Dsamain
F. Active Directory Users and Computers
G. Ntdsutil
H. Group Policy Management Console
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You plan to deploy a new Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) cluster on a server named Server1.
You need to create the AD RMS service account. The solution must use the principle of least privilege
What should you do?
A. Create a domain user account and add the account to the Account Operators group in the domain.
B. Create a local user account on Server1 and add the account to the Administrators group on Server1.
C. Create a domain user account and add the account to the Domain Users group in the domain.
D. Create a domain user account and add the account to the Administrators group on Server1.
70-742 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain functional level is Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to secure several high-privilege user accounts to meet the following requirements: What should you do?
A. Create a universal security group for the user accounts and modify the Security settings of the group.
B. Add the users to the Windows Authorization Access Group group.
C. Add the user to the Protected Users group.
D. Create a separate organizational unit (OU) for the user accounts and modify the Security settings of the OU.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. You have an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm. The farm contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a server named Server2 to the farm. Server2 runs Windows Server 2016. You remove Server1 from the farm. You need to ensure that you can use role separation to manage the farm. Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-AdfsFarmInformation
B. Update-AdfsRelyingPartyTrust
C. Set-AdfsProperties
D. Invoke-AdfsFarmBehaviorLevelRaise
70-742 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. A partner company has a forest named fabrikam.com. Each forest contains one domain. You need to provide access for a group named Research in fabrikam.com to resources in contoso.com. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. What should you do?
A. Create an external trust from fabrikam.com to contoso.com. Enable Active Directory split permissions in fabrikam.com.
B. Create an external trust from contoso.com to fabrikam.com. Enable Active Directory split permissions in contoso.com.
C. Create a one-way forest trust from contoso.com to fabrikam.com that uses selective authentication.
D. Create a one-way forest trust from fabrikam.com to contoso.com that uses selective authentication.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated Scenario: You work for a company named Contoso, Ltd.
The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. A forest trust exists between contoso.com and an Active Directory forest named adatum.com. The contoso.com forest contains the objects configured as shown in the following table.
Scenario:
Refer to following table:

Group1 and Group 2 contain only user accounts. Contoso hires a new remote user named User3. User3 will work from home and will use a computer named Computed that runs Windows 10. Computed is currently in a workgroup. An administrator named Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group in the contoso.com domain. From Active Directory Users and Computers, you create an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 in the contoso.com domain, and then you create a contact named Contact1 in OU1, An administrator of the adatum.com domain runs the Set-ADUser cmdlet to configure a user named User1 to have a user logon name of [email protected].
End of Scenario:
Admin1 attempts to delete OU1 and receives an error message. You need to ensure that Admin1 can delete OU1. What should you do first?
A. Delete Contact1.
B. Add Admin1 to the Enterprise Admins group.
C. Modify the Object settings for OU1.
D. Disable the Active Directory Recycle Bin.
70-742 pdf Correct Answer: C

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Share Some Citrix Specialist 1Y0-351 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below(1-24)

Exam B
QUESTION 1
Traffic to which destination is sourced from the NetScaler IP (NSIP) by default?
A. NTP servers
B. Clients on the Internet
C. Load-balanced web services
D. Load-balanced authentication services
1Y0-351 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A NetScaler Engineer configures COOKIEINSERT persistence method for an HTTP VServer named ‘myApp’. Many clients do NOT allow the persistence cookie to be set and application sessions fail as a result. All clients are behind a network address translation (NAT) gateway, which will insert the client IP address into an HTTP header called X-Forwarded-For. Which command could the engineer execute to provide persistence for clients while still distributing the requests across the bound services?
A. set lb vserver myApp -persistenceType SOURCEIP
B. set lb vserver myApp -persistenceType NONE -lbmethod SRCIPDESTIPHASH
C. set lb vserver myApp -persistenceType COOKIEINSERT -timeout 0 -cookieName X-Forwarded- For
D. set lb vserver myApp -persistenceType NONE -lb method TOKEN -rule “HTTP.REQ.HEADER(\”X
Forwarded-For\”).VALUE(0)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A NetScaler Engineer has created an SSL virtual server that utilizes SSL services. The engineer needs to configure certificate authentication from the NetScaler to the backend web services. What should the engineer do to meet the requirements outlined in the scenario?
A. Bind a CA Certificate to the SSL Services.
B. Bind a Client Certificate to the SSL Services.
C. Create an SSL policy to present the Client Certificate to the web services.
D. Enable Client Authentication and set Client Certificate to mandatory on the virtual server.
1Y0-351 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which service setting would a NetScaler Engineer use in the command-line interface to limit connections to server resources?
A. -maxReq
B. -maxClient
C. -monThreshold
D. -maxBandwidth
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement is true about interface link-state on the NetScaler?
A. Interface link-state is controlled by ifconfig in BSD.
B. Interface link-state is dependent on the HAMON setting.
C. Interface link-state CANNOT be brought down from the NetScaler.
D. Interface link-state on both appliances is unaffected by the force failover command.
1Y0-351 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
In order to configure integrated cache, a NetScaler Engineer would need to reboot the NetScaler when the integrated caching feature is __________ and cache memory limit is set to __________. (Choose the correct set of options to complete the sentence.)
A. enabled; zero
B. disabled; zero
C. enabled; non-zero
D. disabled; non-zero
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two certificate formats are supported when creating a certificate key pair on the NetScaler? (Choose two.)
A. PEM
B. DER
C. PKCS7
D. PKCS12
1Y0-351 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
As a result of connecting two NetScaler interfaces in the same L2 broadcast domain/VLAN (unless link aggregation is configured), the NetScaler will __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. restart
B. disable one interface
C. cause a network loop
D. disable both interfaces
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Scenario: Users in an organization need to access several web applications daily. Management has asked a NetScaler Engineer to reduce the amount of times users have to enter credentials when accessing web applications. What should the engineer configure to meet this requirement?
A. A load-balancing VServer and an authorization policy
B. An authentication VServer and an authorization policy
C. An authentication VServer and an authentication policy
D. A content switching VServer and an authentication profile
1Y0-351 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
The upgrade script copies the updated NetScaler kernel file to the __________ NetScaler directory. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. /var
B. /flash
C. /nsconfig
D. /flash/boot
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which setting must an engineer ensure is configured before a Subnet IP (SNIP) could be used to communicate with servers on the same network segment?
A. Static route is defined
B. USIP mode is enabled
C. USNIP mode is enabled
D. Default gateway is defined
1Y0-351 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which tool could a NetScaler Engineer use to monitor client-side rendering times for a Web application that is load-balanced by NetScaler?
A. Tcpdump
B. Insight Center
C. Command Center
D. NetScaler Dashboard
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which step could a network engineer take to prevent brute force logon attacks?
A. Enable the Rate Limiting feature.
B. Enable the AAA Application feature.
C. Configure the Access Gateway policies.
D. Configure the Cache redirection policies.
1Y0-351 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A network engineer should enable the Rate Limiting feature of a NetScaler system to mitigate the threat of __________ attack. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. reverse proxying
B. Java decompilation
C. source code disclosure
D. brute force logon attacks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which NetScaler feature could be used to stall policy processing to retrieve information from an external server?
A. Responder
B. HTTP callout
C. AppExpert template
D. EdgeSight monitoring
1Y0-351 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
An engineer has bound three monitors to a service group and configured each of the monitors with a weight of 10. How should the engineer ensure that the members of the service group are marked as DOWN when at least two monitors fail?
A. Re-configure the weight of each monitor to 0.
B. Configure the service group with a threshold of 21.
C. Configure the service group with a threshold of 20.
D. Re-configure the weight of each monitor to 5, and configure the service group threshold to 15.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
A network engineer has noted that the primary node in an HA pair has been alternating as many as three times a day due to intermittent issues. What should the engineer configure to ensure that HA failures are alerted?
A. LACP
B. SNMP
C. Route monitors
D. Failover Interface Set
1Y0-351 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
The disk is full on a NetScaler appliance but NO alerts were generated by the SNMP traps. What is the likely cause of this failed alert?
A. Auditing is not enabled.
B. EdgeSight monitoring is not configured.
C. The threshold was not set for the alarm.
D. Health monitoring has not been enabled.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
What type of protocol does AppFlow use for reporting?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. HTTP
D. SSL_TCP
1Y0-351 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Scenario: A network engineer monitoring an HTTP service-related issue needs to view only the relevant data pertaining to the service being monitored. The IP address of the back-end service being monitored is 10.10.1.99. The NSIP address is 10.10.1.230. Which command should the engineer execute to monitor data relevant to this issue only in real time?
A. telnet
B. traceroute
C. nsconmsg
D. nstcpdump
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Scenario: A NetScaler environment uses two-factor authentication and the second authentication method is AD. A user logs in to the environment but does NOT receive access to the resources that the user should have access to. How can an engineer determine the AD authentication issue on the NetScaler?
A. Check NSlogs
B. Use nsconmsg
C. Use the cat aaad.debug command
D. Check the authorization configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
A NetScaler is configured with two-factor authentication. A user reported that authentication failed. How can an engineer determine which factor of the authentication method failed?
A. Check NSlog
B. Use nsconmsg
C. Check the dashboard
D. Use cat aaad.debug command
1Y0-351 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
A public SSL certificate on a virtual server is about to expire and the NetScaler engineer needs to renew the certificate before it expires.
Which step must the engineer take to renew the SSL Certificate?
A. Generate a new CSR
B. Recreate the Private Keys
C. Execute CRL Management
D. Update the existing certificate
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
An environment network has:
– High bandwidth
– Low packet loss
– High Round-Trip Time (RTT)
Which TCP profile should an engineer configure for the environment described?
A. Nstcp_default_profile
B. Nstcp_default_tcp_lfp
C. Nstcp_default_tcp_lnp
D. Nstcp_default_tcp_lan
1Y0-351 exam Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
How many years of experience do you have designing, assessing, and optimizing Software Asset Management (SAM)?
A. I have not done this yet.
B. Less than 3 months
C. 3-6 months
D. More than 6 months but less than 1 year
E. 1-2 years
F. 2-3 years
G. 3 or more years
70-673 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Rate your level of proficiency with assessing SAM programs by using the SAM Optimization Model, including defining scope, assessing SAM processes throughout an organization, assigning maturity levels according to the 10 components of the SAM Optimization Model, and performing gap analysis between current and desired maturity levels.
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Rate your level of proficiency with performing software license reviews, including conducting inventories, validating and managing license entitlement records, and reconciling software inventories and report license compliance status.
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
70-673 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Rate your level of proficiency with coordinating technologies, including managing data collection, data interfaces between disparate data sources, and reporting.
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Rate your level of proficiency with designing, implementing, and managing a SAM program, including securing executive sponsorship and funding.
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
70-673 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Rate your level of proficiency with managing the Software Asset life cycle, including acquisition, deployment, maintenance, and retirement.
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Rate your level of proficiency with IT procurement, IT contract negotiations and management (i.e. software licensing, terms and conditions), and IT operations (i.e. application package management, network administration).
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
70-673 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Rate your level of proficiency with Microsoft licensing models and product use right (PUR).
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Rate your level of proficiency with audit procedures (i.e. ITIL SAM-related standards, ISO/IEC 19770 standards).
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
70-673 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Rate your level of proficiency with Microsoft Operations Framework (MOF).
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Your customer has one office. All software and hardware purchasing is centralized. You need to define the scope of a SAM program assessment for the customer. Which information should you collect?
A. current license versions
B. install, move, add, change (IMAC) activities
C. list of people responsible for SAM sign-off
D. quantity of server licenses
70-673 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Your customer has Active Directory and Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (CfgMgr). You need to identify which data fields must be used to create a baseline hardware inventory report by using Active Directory and CfgMgr. Which data fields should you identify?
A. Fully qualified domain name (FQDN) and Processor
B. MAC address and Product title
C. Operating system version and Product title
D. User name and NetBIOS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Your customer’s network contains a SAM tool. You use the SAM tool to generate reports. The customer installs both Microsoft Office Visio Standard and Microsoft Office Visio Professional. The customer only purchases licenses for Visio Professional. You need to create a report to reconcile the Visio licenses. Which report should you create?
A. software deployments by edition
B. software entitlements purchased by month
C. software requests by employee
D. software usage by server product
70-673 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You are developing a business plan for a SAM program for a customer. All senior staff, Accounting department managers, and IT department managers attend initial SAM planning meetings. You need to complete the business plan for the customer. What should you do next?
A. Secure executive sponsorship.
B. Secure approval from the Accounting department.
C. Obtain a purchase order from the Accounting department.
D. Obtain a list of all installed software from the IT department.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You plan to secure funding for a SAM program.You gather the following information from a customer:
use different versions of Microsoft Office. You need to identify two benefits that support implementing a SAM program for the customer. Which two benefits should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Decreased licensing costs
B. Decreased IT support costs
C. Improved payment processes
D. Improved project management processes
70-673 vce Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 16
You design a SAM program for a customer. You implement an asset management system. You need to design a process to identify all owned software licenses. What should you integrate into the asset management system?
A. an auto-discovery tool
B. a change management system
C. a human resources system
D. a procurement system
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Your customer has a SAM program. The customer installs SAM tools that monitor approved software installations. You need to monitor whether the customer adheres to approved software installation policies. What should you do?
A. Perform quarterly inventory verifications.
B. Perform quarterly license metering verifications.
C. Perform quarterly hardware inventory verifications.
D. Perform quarterly human resources audits for new employees.
70-673 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Your customer plans to improve the application recognition of a software inventory tool. You need to measure the performance of the application recognition function. Which metric should you use?
A. software purchases compared to software requests
B. software purchases from authorized vendors
C. software requests compared to software installations
D. unknown software executables in the environment
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
You plan to manage a deployment process for a customer. You need to implement a change management system in the customer’s server environment. What should you do?
A. Identify all server hardware purchases.
B. Identify all approved hardware vendors.
C. Monitor costs saved by reusing software.
D. Monitor install, move, add, change (IMAC) activities.
70-673 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Your customer purchases Microsoft Office Project 2003 under a volume license agreement. The customer does not have Microsoft Software Assurance. The customer installs 200 copies of Project 2007. You need to ensure that the customer is in compliance with software licensing. The solution must minimize costs. What should you do?
A. Purchase Microsoft Software Assurance.
B. Purchase 200 full packaged product (FPP) licenses for Microsoft Office Project 2007.
C. Purchase 200 full packaged product (FPP) licenses for Microsoft Office Standard 2007.
D. Purchase 200 Microsoft Office Project 2007 licenses through the customer’s volume licensing agreement.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Your customer uses Microsoft Office Excel to maintain an inventory of software and hardware assets. You need to recommend a tool that generates daily reports on changes to the inventory of applications installed on computers. Which tool should you recommend?
A. a network monitoring tool
B. a procurement tool
C. the SAM ROI Calculator
D. a software asset inventory tool
70-673 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Your customer’s network consists of one Active Directory forest. The network contains a Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (CfgMgr) server and a Microsoft System Center Operations Manager (OpsMgr) server. All computers are joined to the Active Directory domain and have both CfgMgr and OpsMgr clients installed. You plan to manage the software and hardware retirement process for the customer. You need to identify all retired desktop computers. What should you do?
A. Generate a CfgMgr report.
B. Generate an OpsMgr report.
C. Review the Active Directory Group Policy objects (GPOs).
D. Review the Active Directory domain controller event viewer logs.
Correct Answer: A

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Share Some Microsoft Specialist 70-341 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below(4-7)

Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
You need to recommend a design that meets the technical requirements for communication between Fabrikam and A. Datum. Which three actions should you perform in fabrikam.com? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Create a remote domain for adatum.com.
B. Exchange certificates with the administrators of adatum.com.
C. From EDGE1, create a Send connector that has an address space for adatum.com
D. Run the Set-TransportConfigcmdlet.
E. Run the Set-TransportServercmdlet.
F. From a Mailbox server, create a Send connector that has an address space for adatum.com.
70-341 exam Answer: B,D,F
Explanation:
NOT A
Applies to: Exchange Server 2013, Exchange Online
Remote domains are SMTP domains that are external to your Microsoft Exchange organization. You can create remote domain entries to define the settings for message transferred between your Exchange organization and specific external domains. The settings in the remote domain entry for a specific external domain override the settings in the default remote domain that normally apply to all external recipients. The remote domain settings are global for the Exchange organization. You can create remote domain entries to define the settings for message transfers between your Exchange Online organization and external domains. When you create a remote domain entry, you control the types of messages that are sent to that domain. You can also apply message format policies and acceptable character sets for messages that are sent from users in your organization to the remote domain.
NOT C
Edge1 is in the perimeter network and the send connector needs to be created on a mailbox server
NOT E
Set-TransportServercmdlet. Use the Set-TransportServer cmdlet to set the transport configuration options for the Transport service on Mailbox servers or for Edge Transport servers. This example sets the DelayNotificationTimeout parameter to 13 hours on server named Mailbox01. Set-TransportServer Mailbox01 -DelayNotificationTimeout 13:00:00
Need Set-TransportConfig and the TLSReceiveDomainSecureList parameter to specify the domains from which you want to receive domain secured email by using mutual Transport Layer Security (TLS) authentication.
B
To activate SSL encryption on an Exchange server, you need a server certificate on the Client Access Server in each company. The client access server is the internet facing server in an organization. An SSL certificate is a digital certificate that authenticates the identity of the exchange server and encrypts information that is sent to the server using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) technology Mailbox server certificates One key difference between Exchange 2010 and Exchange 2013 is that the certificates that are used on the Exchange 2013 Mailbox server are self-signed certificates. Because all clients connect to an Exchange 2013 Mailbox server through an Exchange
2013 Client Access server, the only certificates that you need to manage are those on the Client Access server. The Client Access server automatically trusts the self-signed certificate on the Mailbox server, so clients will not receive warnings about a self-signed certificate not being trusted, provided that the Client Access server has a non-self-signed certificate from either a Windows certification authority (CA) or a trusted third party. There are no tools or cmdlets available to manage self-signed certificates on the Mailbox server. After the server has been properly installed, you should never need to worry about the certificates on the Mailbox server.
D
Set-TransportConfig.
Use the Set-TransportConfig cmdlet to modify the transport configuration settings for the whole Exchange organization.
EXAMPLE 1
This example configures the Exchange organization to forward all DSN messages that have the DSN codes 5.7.1, 5.7.2, and 5.7.3 to the postmaster email account. Set-TransportConfig -GenerateCopyOfDSNFor 5.7.1,5.7.2,5.7.3 The TLSReceiveDomainSecureList parameter specifies the domains from which you want to receive domain secured email by using mutual Transport Layer Security (TLS) authentication.
F
If you want to ensure secure, encrypted communication with a partner, you can create a Send connector that is configured to enforce Transport Layer Security (TLS) for messages sent to a partner domain. TLS provides secure communication over the Internet. Use the EAC to create a Send connector to send email to a partner, with TLS applied To create a Send connector for this scenario, log in to the EAC and perform the following steps:
In the EAC, navigate to Mail flow > Send connectors, and then click Add .
In the New send connector wizard, specify a name for the send connector and then select Partner for the Type.
When you select Partner, the connector is configured to allow connections only to servers that authenticate with TLS certificates. Click Next. Verify that MX record associated with recipient domain is selected, which specifies that the connector uses the domain name system (DNS) to route mail. Click Next. Under Address space, click Add . In the Add domain window, make sure SMTP is listed as the Type. For Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN), enter the name of your partner domain. Click Save. For Source server, click Add . In the Select a server window, select a Mailbox server that will be used to send mail to the Internet via the Client Access server and click Add . After
you’ve selected the server, click Add . Click OK. Click Finish. Once you have created the Send connector, it appears in the Send connector list.
Send Connector
In Microsoft Exchange Server 2013, a Send connector controls the flow of outbound messages to the receiving server. They are configured on Mailbox servers running the Transport service. Most commonly, you configure a Send connector to send outbound email messages to a smart host or directly to their recipient, using DNS. Exchange 2013 Mailbox servers running the Transport service require Send connectors to deliver messages to the next hop on the way to their destination. Send connectors that are created on Mailbox servers are stored in Active Directory and are available to all Mailbox servers running the Transport service in the organization.

Question No : 5 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You are evaluating the implementation of a second Edge Transport server named EDGE2 in the Amsterdam office. You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to ensure that email messages can be sent by the organization if a single Edge Transport server fails. Which three actions should you include in the recommendation? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Answer:

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
You need to recommend which type of group must be used to create the planned department lists. Which type of group should you recommend?
A. Universal Distribution
B. Dynamic Distribution
C. Global Security
D. Universal Security
70-341 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
There are two types of groups that can be used to distribute messages: Mail-enabled universal distribution groups (also called distribution groups) can be used only to distribute messages. Mail-enabled universal security groups (also called security groups) can be used to
distribute messages as well as to grant access permissions to resources in Active Directory. For more information, see Manage Mail-Enabled Security Groups. A mail-enabled security group is an Active Directory universal security group object that can be used to assign access permissions to resources in Active Directory and can also be used to distribute messages. It’s important to note the terminology differences between Active Directory and Exchange. In Active Directory, a distribution group refers to any group that doesn’t have a security context, whether it’s mail-enabled or not. In contrast, in Exchange, all mail-enabled groups are referred to as distribution groups, whether they have a security context or not. Dynamic Distribution Groups Unlike regular distribution groups that contain a defined set of members, the membership list for dynamic distribution groups is calculated each time a message is sent to the group, based on the filters and conditions that you define. When an email message is sent to a dynamic distribution group, it’s delivered to all recipients in the organization that match the criteria defined for that group.

Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to meet the technical requirements of the research and development (R&D) department. Which two tasks should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Create a new global address list (GAL) and a new address book policy.
B. Modify the permissions of the default global address list (GAL), and then create a new GAL.
C. Run the Update AddressList cmdlet.
D. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
E. Create an OAB virtual directory.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
NOT B
Need an address book policy
NOT C
Update AddressList cmdlet
Use the Update-AddressList cmdlet to update the recipients included in the address list that you specify.
EXAMPLE 1
This example updates the recipients of the address list building4 and under the container All Users\Sales. Update-AddressList -Identity “All Users\Sales\building4”
NOT E
Will not resolve the issue
Need an address book policy and to assign this policy to users.
A
Address book policies (ABPs) allow you to segment users into specific groups to provide customized views of your organization’s global address list (GAL). When creating an ABP, you assign a GAL, an offline address book (OAB), a room list, and one or more address lists to the policy. You can then assign the ABP to mailbox users, providing them with access to a customized GAL in Outlook and Outlook Web App. The goal is to provide a simpler mechanism to accomplish GAL segmentation for on premises organizations that require multiple GALs.
D
After you create an address book policy (ABP), you must assign it to mailbox users. Users aren’t assigned a default ABP when their user account is created. If you don’t assign an ABP to a user, the global address list (GAL) for your entire organization will be accessible to the user through Outlook and Outlook Web App. This example assigns the ABP All Fabrikam to the existing mailbox user.

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QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the debug output, which three statements about HSRP are true? (Choose Three)
A. The final active router is the router with IP address 172.16.11.111
B. The router with IP address 172.16.11.111 has preempt configured
C. The priority of the router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is preferred over the router with IP address 172.16.11.111
D. The IP address 172.16.11.115 is the virtual HSRP IP address
E. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 has nonpreempt configured
F. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is using default HSRP priority.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 19
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a device failure.

Refer to the exhibit. If router R1 interface Etherne0/0 goes down and recovers, which of the statement regarding HSRP priority is true?
A. The interface will have the priority decremented by 40 for HSRP group 1.
B. The interface will have the priority decremented by 60 for HSRP group 1
C. The interface will have its current priority incremented by 40 for HSRP group 1
D. The interface will have its current priority incremented by 60 for HSRP group 1
E. The interface will default to the a priority of 100 for HSRP group 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution. DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105  DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104 A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed. Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.

What is the priority value of the VLAN 105 HSRP group on DSW2?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a device failure.

What issue is causing Router R1 and R2 to both be displayed as the HSRP active router for group 2?
A. The HSRP group number mismatch
B. The HSRP group authentication is misconfigured
C. The HSRP Hello packets are blocked
D. The HSRP timers mismatch
E. The HSRP group priorities are different
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Scenario:
You work for SWITCH.com. They have just added a new switch (SwitchB) to the existing network as shown in the topology diagram.
RouterA is currently configured correctly and is providing the routing function for devices on SwitchA and SwitchB. SwitchA is currently configured correctly, but will need to be modified to support the addition of SwitchB. SwitchB has a minimal configuration. You have been tasked with competing the needed configuring of SwitchA and SwitchB. SwitchA and SwitchB use Cisco as the enable password.
Configuration Requirements for SwitchA The VTP and STP configuration modes on SwitchA should not be modified.
• SwitchA needs to be the root switch for vlans 11, 12, 13, 21, 22 and 23. All other vlans should be left are their default values. Configuration Requirements for SwitchB
• Vlan 21
Name: Marketing will support two servers attached to fa0/9 and fa0/10
• Vlan 22
Name: Sales will support two servers attached to fa0/13 and fa0/14
• Vlan 23
o Name: Engineering
o will support two servers attached to fa0/15 and fa0/16
• Access ports that connect to server should transition immediately to forwarding state upon detecting the connection of a device.
• SwitchB VTP mode needs to be the same as SwitchA.
• SwitchB must operate in the same spanning tree mode as SwitchA
• No routing is to be configured on SwitchB
• Only the SVI vlan 1 is to be configured and it is to use address 192.168.1.11/24 Inter-switch Connectivity Configuration Requirements
• For operational and security reasons trunking should be unconditional and Vlans 1, 21, 22 and 23 should tagged when traversing the trunk link.
• The two trunks between SwitchA and SwitchB need to be configured in a mode that allows for the maximum use of their bandwidth for all vlans. This mode should be done with a non-proprietary protocol, with SwitchA controlling activation.
• Propagation of unnecessary broadcasts should be limited using manual pruning on this trunk link.

QUESTION 23

QUESTION 24
Because of the large number of factors that could affect the demand for its new product, interactions among these factors, and the probabilities associated with different values of these factors, the marketing department would like to develop a computerized model for projecting demand for this product. By using a random number procedure to generate values for the different factors, it will be able to estimate the distribution of demand for this new product. This method of estimating the distribution of demand for the new product is called
A. Monte Carlo simulation.
B. Linear programming.
C. Correlation analysis.
D. Differential analysis.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique in which a probabilistic process is first modeled. The inputs to themodel are then varied a large number of times to estimate the distribution of possibleoutcomes from the model of the variable of interest. Simulations that use a random numberprocedure to generate values for the inputs are referred to as Monte Carlo simulations.

QUESTION 25
An account executive has just designed a Monte Carlo model to estimate the costs of a particular type of project. Validating the model could include all except:
A. Checking for errors in the computer programming.
B. Checking that assumed probability distributions are reasonable.
C. Comparing test results with previously validated models.
D. Applying the model.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Monte Carlo technique is used in a simulation to generate the individual values for arandom value. An essential step in the simulation procedure is to validate the mathematicalmodel used. This process involves not only searching for errors but also verifying theassumptions. It also should provide some assurance that the results of the experiment will berealistic. This assurance is often obtained using historical data. If the model gives resultsequivalent to what actually happened, the model is historically valid. There is still some risk,however, that changes could make the model invalid for the future. The model should not beimplemented until this validation process is complete.

QUESTION 26
A large fishing operation has information on the interval, time, and probabilities of shrimp schools staying beneath their fishing boats. In order to use this information to predict when and where to send their boats, which of the following techniques should be used?
A. Simulation.
B. Least squares.
C. Queuing theory.
D. Exponential smoothing.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation Monte Carlo simulation) is a technique for experimenting withlogical/mathematical models using a computer. Despite the power of mathematics, manyproblems cannot be solved by known analytical methods because of the behavior of thevariables and the complexity of their interactions. However, the performance of aquantitative model under uncertainty may be investigated by randomly selecting values foreach variable in the model based on its probability distribution) and then calculating thevalue of the solution. If this process is performed many times, the distribution of results fromthe model will be obtained.

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is not true about simu-lation models?
A. They are deterministic in nature.
B. The may involve sampling.
C. They mathematically estimate what actual performance would be.
D. They emulate stochastic systems.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique for experimenting with logical/mathematical models using acomputer. The simulation procedure has five steps: define the objectives, formulate themodel, validate the model, design the experiment, and conduct the simulation and evaluatethe results. A simulation uses the laws of probability to generate values for random variables. Thus, simulation models are probabilistic, not deterministic.

QUESTION 28
A cost-volume-profit model developed in a dynamic environment determined that the estimated parameters used may vary between limits. Subsequent testing of the model with respect to all possible values of the estimated parameters is termed:
A. A sensitivity analysis.
B. Statistical estimation.
C. Statistical hypothesis testing.
D. A time-series study.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
After a problem has been formulated into any mathematical model, it may be subjected tosensitivity analysis. Sensitivity analysis is a method for studying the effects of changes in oneor more variables on the results of a decision model.

QUESTION 29
An investment company is attempting to allocate its available funds between two investment alternatives, stocks and bonds, which differ in terms of expected return and risk. The company would like to minimize its risk while earning an expected return of at least 10% and investing no more than 70% in either of the investment alternatives. An appropriate technique for allocating its funds between stocks and bonds is:
A. Linear programming.
B. Capital budgeting.
C. Differential analysis.
D. Queuing theory.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Linear programming is a mathematical technique for planning resource allocation thatoptimizes a given objective function that is subject to certain constraints. In this case, themaximum investment is constrained by a 70% limit on either investment choice.

QUESTION 30
A company is deciding whether to purchase an automated machine to manufacture one of its products. Expected net cash flows from this decision depend on several factors, interactions among those factors, and the probabilities associated with different levels of those factors.
The method that the company should use to evaluate the distribution of net cash flows from this decision and changes in net cash flows resulting from changes in levels of various factors is:
A. Simulation and sensitivity analysis.
B. Linear programming.
C. Correlation analysis.
D. Differential analysis.
300-115  pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique used to describe the behavior of a real-world system over time. This technique usually employs a computer program to perform the simulation computations. Sensitivity analysis examines how outcomes change as the model parameters change.

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Share Some Cisco Specialist 400-251 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 1
Within Platform as a Service, which two components are managed by the customer?(Choose two)
A. Data.
B. Networking.
C. Middleware.
D. Applications.
E. Operating system
400-251 exam Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 2
Which two characteristics of DTLS are true?(Choose two )
A. It is used mostly by applications that use application layer object-protocols B. It includes a congestion control mechanism
B. It completes key negotiation and bulk data transfer over a single channel.
C. It supports long data transfers and connectionless data transfers.
D. It cannot be used if NAT exists along the path.
E. It concludes a retransmission method because it uses an unreliable datagram transport
Correct Answer: AD
Question No : 3 – (Topic 1) Which of the following phases of the TOGAF ADM correspond most closely to the ArchiMate Motivation Extension?
A. Preliminary, Architecture Vision, Requirements Management
B. Opportunities and Solutions, Migration Planning, Implementation Governance
C. Architecture Change Management
D. Business Architecture, Information Systems Architectures, Technology Architecture
400-251 dumps Answer: A
Question No : 4 – (Topic 1) Which of the following best describes why ArchiMate supports specialization of concepts?
A. It is the only way to model enterprise architecures that are useable and easy to communicate to the stakeholders
B. It is needed to represent the same concept on different viewpoints
C. It provides extra flexibility, enabling users to customize the language to their own preferences and needs, while maintaining the underlying precise definition of the concepts
D. It is allowed because without this mechanism it would be impossible to add attributes to ArchiMate concepts and relations
Answer: C
Question No : 5 – (Topic 1) Which application layer concept is defined as a passive element?
A. Application component
B. Application function r
C. Data object
D. Business object
400-251 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)  Consider the following diagram representing part of a key PRO-FIT capability: self-service online price quotes for its auto insurance customers: Which of the following answers best interprets this diagram?
A. The Self-Service Quote Solution is an application service that uses four separate application components
B. The Self-Service Quote Solution is an application collaboration that includes four application components that work together
C. The Self-Service Quote Solution is an application component that accesses four different types of data objects
D. The Self-Service Quote Solution is an application component that collaborates with four service modules
Answer: B
Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)
The following diagram shows an example of the use of the Migration viewpoint:  Which of the following best describes a reason for using this viewpoint?
A. To model the management of architecture change
B. To help determine the priorities of implementation projects
C. To relate programs and projects to the parts of the architecture that they implement
D. To help in planning the transition from the current architecture to a desired future architecture
400-251 vce Answer: D
Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Consider the following diagram: What does the diagram express about the Underwriting Application?
A. It has three distinct components
B. It processes three different types of data objects
C. It performs three different functions
D. It groups together three components that are not a part of the Underwriting Application
Answer: C
Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)  Consider the following symbol, which represents information about a transformation project at ArchiSurance involving systems and business processes: Which of the following statements correctly expresses the meaning of the symbol?
A. The ArchiSurance legal department has determined the impact of the new regulations
B. The project must satisfy requirements for additional reporting
C. The additional reporting requirements in new insurance regulations are driving change at ArchiSurance
D. The project’s systems must be flexible enough to accommodate any future changes in reporting requirements
400-251 exam Answer: C
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
Consider the following three graphical notations:
Which of the three graphical notations represent the concept of a network?
A. Only notation 1 represents the network concept
B. Only notation 2 represents the network concept
C. Notations 1 and 3 represent the network concept
D. All three notations represent the network concept
Answer: C
Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)  Consider the following symbol, which represents information about a transformation project at ArchiSurance. Note that premium in this context means the total revenue ArchiSurance receives from legal services insurance premium payments: Which of the following statements correctly expresses the meaning of the symbol?
A. ArchiSurance has attributed a 15% increase in premium to the transformation project in 2012
B. The increased premium revenue created by completion of the transformation project will motivate significant change in the ArchiSurance Legally Yours division
C. ArchiSurance has set a goal to increase legal services premium by 15% in 2012, as compared to the previous year
D. ArchiSurance has a requirement to increase legal services premium by 15% in 2012
400-251 dumps Answer: C
Question No : 12 – (Topic 1) Consider the following diagram, which represents a migration from a Baseline to a Target Architecture:
Which of the following answers best interprets the unlabeled symbol in the middle of the diagram?
A. It represents a relatively stable intermediate state during the migration from the Baseline to the Target Architectures
B. It represents a project that progresses the architecture from Baseline to Target
C. It represents the deliverables necessary to transform the architecture from Baseline to Target
D. It represents a conceptual point of transition between the two architectures, but one that is unlikely to exist in reality for more than an instant
Answer: A
Question No : 13 – (Topic 1) The following diagram shows a typical group of stakeholders: Which ArchiMate viewpoint abstraction level would support these stakeholders for the purpose of change management?
A. Coherence
B. Designing
C. Details
D. Overview
400-251 pdf Answer: D
Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)  Consider the following diagram: What does the diagram express about the relationship between the three processes?
A. Take in Claim passes information to Gather Claim Information, and Gather Claim Information passes information to Adjudicate Claim
B. Take in Claim triggers Gather Claim Information, and Gather Claim Information triggers Adjudicate Claim
C. Take in Claim is used by Gather Claim Information, and Gather Claim Information is used by Adjudicate Claim
D. The three processes may execute in parallel, although they don’t have to
Answer: B
Question No : 15 – (Topic 1)  According to the ISO/IEC 40210 standard, which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. A view conforms to a viewpoint
B. A viewpoint always addresses one or more stakeholders
C. A concern is always important to one or more stakeholders
D. A viewpoint always covers exactly one concern
400-251 vce Answer: D
Question No : 16 – (Topic 1)  Consider the following diagram: What is the strongest structural relationship that can be derived from business role Actuary to business interaction Close contract (indicated by number 1 in the diagram)?
A. Assignment
B. Aggregation
C. Realization
D. Used by
Answer: D
Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)
After a claim is processed, ArchiSurance notifies the claimant with a Claim Letter. Consider the following diagram: Which of the following answers correctly interprets the diagram?
A. Printed Claim Letters are scanned and stored online
B. Claim letters have two forms: printed and electronic
C. A Printed Claim Letter realizes a Claim Letter business object
D. Copies of Printed Claim Letters are stored in a Claim Letter filing cabinet
E. Printed Claim Letters are read from the Claim Letter object
400-251 exam Answer: C
Question No : 18 – (Topic 1)  Consider the following diagram, in which CSR stands for Customer Service Representative: Which of the following statements is expressed by the diagram?
A. CSR Training has four key modules, each focusing on a different topic
B. The CSR Training business service is valuable in four different ways
C. CSR Training is a basic service, upon which four sub-services depend
D. CSR Training accesses four different types of information
Answer: B
Question No : 19 – (Topic 1)  Consider the following diagram: Which of the following statements best interprets this diagram?
A. Output generation is explicitly modelled as the collective behavior of the application components: Policy administration application and Financial application
B. Output generation is an application service that is realized in a joint effort of the Policy administration application and the Financial application
C. Output generation is behavior that is present in the Policy administration application as well as in the Financial application
D. Output generation represents the application collaboration of the Policy administration  application and Financial application
400-251 dumps Answer: C
Question No : 20 – (Topic 1)  Consider the following diagram with four relationships modeled: Which relationship modeled in the diagram is not allowed to connect the application layer with the technology layer?
A. Relationship 1
B. Relationship 2
C. Relationship 3
D. Relationship 4
Answer: D
Question No : 21 – (Topic 1)  Which of the following statements about ArchiMate viewpoint classification is correct?
A. There are three purpose dimensions and three abstraction levels
B. There are two purpose dimensions and three abstraction layers
C. There are four purpose dimensions and two abstraction levels
D. There are three purpose dimensions and four abstraction layers
400-251 pdf Answer: A
Question No : 22 – (Topic 1)
Consider the following diagram: Which answer most accurately interprets what the diagram indicates about the goal “Reduce Expense Ratio from 13% to 11% in 2012”?
A. The goal is decomposed into three other goals
B. The goal is similar to the three other goals
C. The goal must be achieved before any of the other three goals is achieved
D. The goal will be achieved if at least one of the other three goals is achieved in 2012
Answer: A
Question No : 23 – (Topic 1)  Which concept is typically used to model hardware systems such as mainframes, PCs, or routers?
A. System software
B. Network
C. Artifact
D. Device
400-251 vce Answer: D
Question No : 24 – (Topic 1)
Consider the following symbol, which represents information about a transformation project at ArchiSurance involving systems and business processes:  Which of the following statements correctly expresses the meaning of the symbol?
A. The Board of Directors will use the transformed systems
B. The Board of Directors has a business role in the project
C. The transformed systems will store information of interest to the Board of Directors
D. The Board of Directors has concerns about the project
Answer: D
Question No : 25 – (Topic 1)  At ArchiSurance, risk assessment is part of an activity used to determine the adequacy of the company’s financial reserves against future claims and fluctuations in the value of its investments. Which ArchiMate relationship should be used to express the forwarding of risk assessment  findings for the reserve evaluation process?
A. Access
B. Assignment
C. Association
D. Flow
400-251 exam Answer: D
Question No : 26 – (Topic 1)  Consider the following diagram,which conforms to a standard ArchiMate viewpoint that uses a simplified notation: To which standard ArchiMate viewpoint does this diagram conform?
A. Elementary viewpoint
B. Introductory viewpoint
C. Coherence viewpoint
D. Deciding viewpoint
Answer: B
Question No : 27 – (Topic 1)
Consider the following diagram:  Which of the following answers best interprets the diagram?
A. The Claims Entry application service realizes the Take Claim Over Telephone business process
B. The Claims Entry application service is used by the Take Claim Over Telephone business process
C. Information flows from the Claims Entry application to the Take Claim Over Telephone business process
D. The Claims Entry business service is used by the Take Claim Over Telephone team
400-251 dumps Answer: B
Question No : 28 – (Topic 1) Which Implementation and Migration Extension viewpoint is used to model the management of architecture change?
A. Migration viewpoint
B. Implementation and Migration viewpoint
C. Business Function viewpoint
D. Project viewpoint
Answer: D
Question No : 29 – (Topic 1)  The diagram below shows key elements of the configuration of ArchiSurance’s newest and most powerful high-end server, which is a model T-9900: Which of the following descriptions of the configuration is most consistent with the diagram?
A. The T-9900 is fitted with a DVX-1200 cooling system and and AX-3000 onboard disk array
B. The T-9900 is running PRO-FIT’s custom, internally-developed DVX-1200 software for enterprise risk analysis and is fitted with an AX-3000 onboard disk array
C. The T-9900 node is running DVX-1200 middleware and the AX-3000 operating system software
D. The T-9900 is an assembly of DVX-1200 processing units and AX-3000 high-speed memory arrays
400-251 pdf Answer: C

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Question No : 12 Customers connecting to a Service Provider for Internet access are intending to implement redundant peering. The design requirements call for preferring a primary link for both ingress and egress traffic. Secondary links should be used only during primary outages. What two BGP deployment options will accomplish this design goal? (Choose two.)
A. On the router handling the secondary link, advertise routes with a MED value of 0.
B. On the router handling the primary link, set the weight for all incoming routes to be a value of 0.
C. On the router handling the secondary link, advertise all routes with a longer AS-PATH value.
D. On the router handling the primary link, advertise all routes with a longer AS-PATH value.
E. On the router handling the secondary link, set the local preference for all incoming routes to be a value of 0.
400-201 exam Answer: C,E
Question No : 13
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

A. This is an inter autonomous unicast route.
B. The BGP MED value is 26.
C. This is an mVPN route.
D. The route target value is 10.1.100.2:3.
E. There is a route reflector in this network.
F. The route did not import this route into the VRF one.
Answer: E
Question No : 14  Which statement about Remotely Triggered Black Hole (RTBH) is true?
A. Route tagging is one of the techniques used by RTBH
B. It is used for BGP authentication
C. It cannot work with static routes
D. It uses extended ACLs for blocking attacks by creating a black hole
E. Before configuring RTBH. LDP must be enabled on the interface
400-201 dumps Answer: A
Question No : 15
Which description is true of that the fast-reroute keep all paths command accomplishes when used under OSPF process?
A. All possible alternate routes are installed in the OSPF RIB, even if the alternate paths do not meet the LFA criteria (the LFA inequalities)
B. By default, only the /32 routes have a backup path installed. This command creates a  backup path for the router with any subnet mask.
C. Besides the regular LFA backup paths, this command also installs the remote LFA backup paths.
D. All backup routes – not only the best backup route are installed in the OSPF RIB.
Answer: D
Candidate Repair-Path Lists When OSPF computes a repair path, it keeps in the local RIB only the best from among all the candidate paths, in order to conserve memory. You can use the fast-reroute keep-all-paths command to create a list of all the candidate repair paths that were considered. This information can be useful for troubleshooting but it can greatly increase memory consumption so it should be reserved for testing and debugging.
Question No : 16  Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is troubleshooting CSC-PE and CSC-CE configurations and finds that there is a missing communication between Layer 3 VPN customer sites that are connected to customer carrier provider. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The static route configured on CSC-PE1 is missing the vrf keyword on next-hop information.
B. The CSC-PE1 does require knowledge of the Layer 3 VPN customer prefixes in order to allocate and exchange Layer 3 VPN labels with CSC-CE1.
C. A CSC design requires selective label allocation.
D. The CSC-PE1 device is not allocating labels for the CSC backbone carrier route reflector.
E. The CSC-PE1 and CSC-CE1 routers are not exchanging labeled IPv4 prefixes, which results in LSP blackholing.
400-201 pdf Answer: E
Question No : 17  In an end-to-end Layer 2 service, which technology provides the capability to detect, verify, isolate, and report faults across a provider network?
A. carrier detect
B. UDLD
C. BFD
D. CFM
Answer: D
Question No : 18 A system administrator wants to install a VCS database enterprise agent on to an active/passive cluster. Where should the database agent files be installed?
A. on local storage on every system in the cluster
B. on local storage on the machine designated as the active system
C. on shared storage so that both active and passive systems will have access
D. on shared storage with a symbolic link to the database on the active system
400-201 vce Answer: A
Question No : 19 Which VCS bundled agent can be used to mirror the state of a NIC resource to another service group?
A. Proxy
B. Phantom C.
IPMultiNIC D.
MnicReflect
Answer: A
Question No : 20 What are three default behaviors of VCS? (Choose three.)
A. migrating applications from a system on intentional system shutdown
B. shutting down the system when an application fails on that system
C. enabling remote access for the cluster management GUI
D. AutoDisable the service groups on a system when that system fails
400-201 exam Answer: ACD
Question No : 21 You have a two-system VCS cluster with two dedicated Ethernet heartbeats and I/O Fencing enabled. What will happen if both heartbeat connections are lost simultaneously?
A. The cluster automatically stops on both systems.
B. All services groups are frozen on both systems.
C. All service groups are evacuated from both systems.
D. One system will panic, and the other will remain up and operational.
Answer: D
Question No : 22 Given a service group where FailOverPolicy=Load, which VCS attribute does HAD use to determine the failover target?
A. Capacity
B. Load
C. Prerequisites
D. AvailableCapacity
400-201 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 23 Which set of commands are needed to add a resource type TypeA with a RestartLimit of 2 to a running cluster?
A. haconf -makerw
hatype add TypeA
hatype modify TypeA RestartLimit 2
haconf dump -makero
B. haconf makerw
hares add TypeA
hares modify TypeA RestartLimit 2
haconf dump -makero
C. haconf makerw
hatype add TypeA
hatype set TypeA RestartLimit 2
haconf dump -makero
D. haconf makerw
hatype modify TypeA RestartLimit 2
hatype add TypeA
haconf dump -makero
Answer: A
Question No : 24 There is a requirement for an application to remain online when a public network interface fails in a two-system VCS cluster. Which hardware configuration is required to configure this behavior in VCS?
A. At least two public network interfaces must be present on each system.
B. One network interface per system will work as long as two or more switches are present.
C. VCS will fail over the application any time any network interface fails on a system.
D. Multiple network interfaces must be on the same controller card on each system.
400-201 pdf Answer: A
Question No : 25 You are planning to install both VERITAS Cluster Server and VERITAS Volume Manager. You will also be changing the application environment over the course of the next 18 months. Increasing the number of will require modification of the VCS configuration. (Choose three.)
A. highly available applications
B. file systems used by the highly available applications
C. disk groups used by the highly available applications
D. disks in the disk group used by the highly available applications
Answer: ABC
Question No : 26 What is a requirement for implementing a VCS cluster?
A. Hardware single points of failure must be isolated and eliminated.
B. An application must be able to restart to a known state after a failure.
C. An application must be able to run simultaneously on all clustered systems.
D. Monitored redundant hardware components must be the same make and model.
400-201 vce Answer: B
Question No : 27 The systems you need to work on are in production and you want to minimize downtime. VCS is not currently installed or configured, though an application is. Which two tasks can be performed prior to the downtime window? (Choose two.)
A. modify the public network interface configuration
B. connect the Fibre Channel cable from the system to the storage switch
C. attach the copper SCSI cable to the storage array
D. modify the private network interface configuration
E. test public network interfaces by disconnecting the cables
Answer: BD
Question No : 28 You want to install a database application in a four-node VCS cluster.  Which system configuration is NOT suitable for the cluster?
A. SystemA
B. SystemB
C. SystemC
D. SystemD
400-201 exam Answer: D
Question No : 29 Which hardware component is considered key in a high availability configuration using VERITAS Volume Manager and VCS?
A. multiple I/O paths
B. shared memory segment definitions
C. multiple processors
D. Fibre Channel attached storage
Answer: A
Question No : 30 Which two passwords do you need to install and configure VCS with the Oracle Enterprise Agent with second level monitoring? (Choose two.)
A. network switch
B. administrative user
C. cluster operator
D. Oracle user
400-201 dumps Answer: BD
Question No : 31 You are installing VCS on a new four-node cluster. You will be running the installation program from a single node. The system administrators are concerned about system security and do not want to give you the administrative password. Instead, they want to enter the password once and then leave you alone to work. Assuming there are no reboots into single-user mode, which two methods enable you to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. telnet
B. ftp C.
ssh D.
rsh E.
RPC
Answer: CD
Question No : 32 During review of a two-system VCS active-passive cluster installation, it is noticed that all disks are configured into a VERITAS Volume Manager disk group containing the boot disk. Which limitation does this impose?
A. VCS cannot manage volumes created in this disk group.
B. Volumes in this disk group are restricted to only having two plexes.
C. This disk group cannot be deported/imported during an application fail over.
D. There are no limitations to having all disks in this disk group.
400-201 pdf Answer: C
Question No : 33 Which elements are NOT components of a base VCS installation? (Choose two.)
A. bundled agents
B. enterprise agents
C. PERL
D. GAB Drivers
E. Clustered Volume Manager
Answer: BE
Question No : 34 You have just installed VCS using the installvcs script on a two-system cluster. Now you are checking the contents of key configuration files to validate the installation. What is the name of the command, with options, that you find in the /etc/gabtab file?
A. gabconfig c -x
B. gabconfig c n 2
C. gabconfig -x
D. gabconfig n 2
400-201 vce Answer: B
Question No : 35 A sysname file is created on one of the cluster systems. Which two additional files need to be modified on that system? (Choose two.)
A. llthosts
B. gabtab
C. gabhosts
D. main.cf E.
types.cf
Answer: AD
Question No : 36 Which VCS utility is used to verify a configuration file and can also be used by the VCS engine to load a configuration file at run time?
A. hacf
B. haconf
C. haload
D. haverify
400-201 exam Answer: A
Question No : 37 VCS needs to be patched on systems running in a production environment. There are two service groups currently running in a cluster that has two systems. VCS is to be stopped on all systems in the cluster in order to apply the patch without any application downtime. What is the proper VCS command to accomplish this?
A. hastop all
B. hastop all force
C. hapause upgrade
D. hasys -stop
Answer: B
Question No : 38 Click the Exhibit button. The diagram shows a proposed HA configuration. What effect would configuring the public NIC to handle low priority heartbeats have?
A. provides more protection from split brain
B. improves LLT and GAB traffic load balance
C. prevents the cluster from going into jeopardy if both private heartbeats fail
D. provides additional availability for the public NIC
400-201 dumps Answer: A
Question No : 39 What are two ways to obtain a valid VERITAS Cluster Server license key? (Choose two.)
A. call the automated License Key Request line
B. contact your VERITAS Sales Representative
C. contact VERITAS Technical Support
D. use the key provided in the installation manual
E. use the VERITAS vLicense WEB site
Answer: BE

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QUESTION 116
Refer to the exhibit.

Which item does F represent?
A. HDD 1
B. TFP Module
C. SuperCap Module
D. CPU 2
E. CMOS Battery
010-151 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 117
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement correctly identifies the front panel LEDs on the Cisco UCS C220 Server?
A. A is power button and power status LED; B is identification button and LED; C is system status LED; D is network link activity LED.
B. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification button and LED.
C. A is system status LED; B is network link activity LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification button and LED.
D. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is identification button and LED; D is power button and power status LED.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 118
Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?
A. up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
B. up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors
C. up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
D. two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors
010-151 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 119
Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual Fiber Channel Module
B. Virtual Ethernet Module
C. Virtual Supervisor Module
D. Virtual Memory Controller Module
E. Virtual Network Module
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 120
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?
A. Cisco Nexus 5548P
B. Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C. Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D. Cisco Nexus 5596T
010-151 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 121
Which Cisco MDS model supports the most Fibre Channel ports per chassis?
A. MDS 9513
B. MDS 9509
C. MDS 9506
D. MDS 9250i
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 122
Refer to the exhibit.

Which Cisco MDS chassis supports the 48-Port 16-Gbps Fibre Channel Switching Module?
A. MDS 9509
B. MDS 9513
C. MDS 9710
D. MDS 9506
010-151 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 123
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the name of this rack-mount server?
A. Cisco UCS C220 Rack-Mount Server
B. Cisco UCS C240 Rack-Mount Server
C. Cisco UCS C420 Rack-Mount Server
D. Cisco UCS C460 Rack-Mount Server
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 124
Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch?
A. first-generation supervisor module
B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2)
C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E)
D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E)
010-151 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 125
The Web resource collection is a security constraint element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification v2.4. Which of the following elements does it include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. HTTP methods
B. Role names
C. Transport guarantees
D. URL patterns
Answer: A,D
Explanation: Web resource collection is a set of URL patterns and HTTP operations that define all resources required to be protected. It is a security constraint element summarized in the Java Servlet Specification v2.4. The Web resource collection includes the following elements: URL patterns HTTP methods Answer: B is incorrect. An authorization constraint includes role names. Answer: C is incorrect. A user data constraint includes transport guarantees.
QUESTION NO: 126
Which of the following activities are performed by the ‘Do’ cycle component of PDCA (plan-do check-act)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It detects and responds to incidents properly.
B. It determines controls and their objectives.
C. It manages resources that are required to achieve a goal.
D. It performs security awareness training.
E. It operates the selected controls.
010-151 exam Answer: A,C,D,E
Explanation: The ‘Do’ cycle component performs the following activities: It operates the selected controls. It detects and responds to incidents properly. It performs security awareness training. It manages resources that are required to achieve a goal. Answer: B is incorrect. This activity is performed by the ‘Plan’ cycle component of PDCA.
QUESTION NO: 127
Numerous information security standards promote good security practices and define frameworks or systems to structure the analysis and design for managing information security controls. Which of the following are the international information security standards? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. AU audit and accountability
B. Human resources security
C. Organization of information security
D. Risk assessment and treatment
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation: Following are the various international information security standards: Risk assessment and treatment: Analysis of the organization’s information security risks Security policy: Management direction Organization of information security: Governance of information security Asset management: Inventory and classification of information assets Human resources security: Security aspects for employees joining, moving, and leaving an organization Physical and environmental security: Protection of the computer facilities Communications and operations management: Management of technical security controls in systems and networks Access control: Restriction of access rights to networks, systems, applications, functions, and data Information systems acquisition, development and maintenance: Building security into applications Information security incident management: Anticipating and responding appropriately to information security breaches Business continuity management: Protecting, maintaining, and recovering business-critical processes and systems Compliance: Ensuring conformance with information security policies, standards, laws, and regulations Answer: A is incorrect. AU audit and accountability is a U.S. Federal Government information security standard.
QUESTION NO: 128
The Data and Analysis Center for Software (DACS) specifies three general principles for software assurance which work as a framework in order to categorize various secure design principles. Which of the following principles and practices does the General Principle 1 include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Principle of separation of privileges, duties, and roles
B. Assume environment data is not trustworthy
C. Simplify the design
D. Principle of least privilege
010-151 dumps Answer: A,D
Explanation: General Principle 1- Minimize the number of high-consequence targets includes the following principles and practices: Principle of least privilege Principle of separation of privileges, duties, and roles Principle of separation of domains Answer: B is incorrect. Assume environment data is not trustworthy principle is included in the General Principle 2. Answer: C is incorrect. Simplify the design principle is included in the General Principle 3.
QUESTION NO: 129
Fill in the blank with the appropriate security mechanism. is a computer hardware mechanism or programming language construct which handles the occurrence of exceptional events.
A. Exception handling
Answer: A
Explanation: Exception handling is a computer hardware mechanism or programming language construct that handles the occurrence of events. These events occur during the software execution process and interrupt the instruction flow. Exception handling performs the specific activities for managing the exceptional events.
QUESTION NO: 130
In which of the following phases of the DITSCAP process does Security Test and Evaluation (ST&E) occur?
A. Phase 2
B. Phase 4
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 1
010-151 pdf Answer: C
Explanation: Security Test and Evaluation (ST&E) occurs in Phase 3 of the DITSCAP C&A process. Answer: D is incorrect.
The Phase 1 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Definition Phase. The goal of this phase is to define the C&A level of effort, identify the main C&A roles and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements. The Phase 1 starts with the input of the mission need. This phase comprises three process activities: Document mission need Registration Negotiation Answer: A is incorrect.
The Phase 2 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Verification. The goal of this phase is to obtain a fully integrated system for certification testing and accreditation. This phase takes place between the signing of the initial version of the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system. This phase verifies security requirements during system development. The process activities of this phase are as follows: Configuring refinement of the SSAA System development Certification analysis Assessment of the Analysis Results Answer: B is incorrect.
The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has been accredited in the Phase 3. The goal of this phase is to continue to operate and manage the system and to ensure that it will maintain an acceptable level of residual risk. The process activities of this phase are as follows: System operations Security operations Maintenance of the SSAA Change management Compliance validation
QUESTION NO: 131
Which of the following access control models uses a predefined set of access privileges for an object of a system?
A. Role-Based Access Control
B. Discretionary Access Control
C. Policy Access Control
D. Mandatory Access Control
Answer: D
Explanation: Mandatory Access Control (MAC) is a model that uses a predefined set of access privileges for an object of the system. Access to an object is restricted on the basis of the sensitivity of the object and granted through authorization. Sensitivity of an object is defined by the label assigned to it. For example, if a user receives a copy of an object that is marked as “secret”, he cannot grant permission to other users to see this object unless they have the appropriate permission. Answer: B is incorrect. DAC is an access control model. In this model, the data owner has the right to decide who can access the data. Answer: A is incorrect. Role-based access
control (RBAC) is an access control model. In this model, a user can access resources according to his role in the organization. For example, a backup administrator is responsible for taking backups of important data. Therefore, he is only authorized to access this data for backing it up. However, sometimes users with different roles need to access the same resources. This situation can also be handled using the RBAC model. Answer: C is incorrect. There is no such access control model as Policy Access Control.
QUESTION NO: 132
Martha works as a Project Leader for BlueWell Inc. She and her team have developed accounting software. The software was performing well. Recently, the software has been modified. The users of this software are now complaining about the software not working properly. Which of the following actions will she take to test the software?
A. Perform integration testing
B. Perform regression testing
C. Perform unit testing
D. Perform acceptance testing
010-151 vce Answer: B
Explanation: Regression testing can be performed any time when a program needs to be modified either to add a feature or to fix an error. It is a process of repeating Unit testing and Integration testing whenever existing tests need to be performed again along with the new tests. Regression testing is performed to ensure that no existing errors reappear, and no new errors are introduced. Answer: D is incorrect. The acceptance testing is performed on the application before its implementation into the production environment. It is done either by a client or an application specialist to ensure that the software meets the requirement for which it was made. Answer: A is incorrect. Integration testing is a logical extension of unit testing. It is performed to identify the problems that occur when two or more units are combined into a component. During integration testing, a developer combines two units that have already been tested into a component, and tests the interface between the two units. Although integration testing can be performed in various ways, the following three approaches are generally used: The top-down approach The bottom-up approach The umbrella approach Answer: C is incorrect. Unit testing is a type of testing in which each independent unit of an application is tested separately. During unit testing, a developer takes the smallest unit of an application, isolates it from the rest of the application code, and tests it to determine whether it works as expected. Unit testing is performed before integrating these independent units into modules. The most common approach to unit testing requires drivers and stubs to be written. Drivers and stubs are programs. A driver simulates a calling unit, and a stub simulates a called unit.

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QUESTION NO: 117
Which of the following phases of the DITSCAP C&A process is used to define the C&A level of effort, to identify the main C&A roles and responsibilities, and to create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements?
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 4
C. Phase 2
D. Phase 3
210-255 exam Answer: A
Explanation: The Phase 1 of the DITSCAP C&A process is known as Definition Phase. The goal of this phase is to define the C&A level of effort, identify the main C&A roles and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements. Answer: C is incorrect.
The Phase 2 of the DITSCAP C&A process is known as Verification. Answer: D is incorrect.
The Phase 3 of the DITSCAP C&A process is known as Validation. Answer: B is incorrect.
The Phase 4 of the DITSCAP C&A process is known as Post Accreditation.
QUESTION NO: 118
Which of the following types of obfuscation transformation increases the difficulty for a de obfuscation tool so that it cannot extract the true application from the obfuscated version?
A. Preventive transformation
B. Data obfuscation
C. Control obfuscation
D. Layout obfuscation
Answer: A
Explanation: Preventive transformation increases the difficulty for a de-obfuscation tool so that it cannot extract the true application from the obfuscated version.
QUESTION NO: 119
Which of the following techniques is used when a system performs the penetration testing with the objective of accessing unauthorized information residing inside a computer?
A. Biometrician
B. Van Eck Phreaking
C. Port scanning
D. Phreaking
210-255 dumps Answer: C
Explanation: Port scanning identifies open doors to a computer. Hackers and crackers use this technique to obtain unauthorized information. Port scanning is the first basic step to get the details of open ports on the target system. Port scanning is used to find a hackable server with a hole or vulnerability. A port is a medium of communication between two computers. Every service on a host is identified by a unique 16-bit number called a port. A port scanner is a piece of software designed to search a network host for open ports. This is often used by administrators to check the security of their networks and by hackers to identify running services on a host with the view to compromising it. Port scanning is used to find the open ports, so that it is possible to search exploits related to that service and
application. Answer: D is incorrect. Phreaking is a process used to crack the phone system. The main aim of phreaking is to avoid paying for long- distance calls. As telephone networks have become computerized, phreaking has become closely linked with computer hacking. This is sometimes called the H/P culture (with H standing for Hacking and P standing for Phreaking).
Answer: A is incorrect. It is defined as a system using a physical attribute for authenticating. Only authorized users are provided access to network or application.
Answer: B is incorrect. It is described as a form of eavesdropping in which special equipments are used to pick up the telecommunication signals or data within a computer device.
QUESTION NO: 120
Which of the following types of attacks is targeting a Web server with multiple compromised computers that are simultaneously sending hundreds of FIN packets with spoofed IP source IP addresses?
A. DDoS attack
B. Evasion attack C.
Insertion attack D.
Dictionary attack
Answer: A
Explanation: A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack targets a Web server with multiple compromised computers that are simultaneously sending hundreds of FIN packets with spoofed IP source IP addresses. DDoS attack occurs when multiple compromised systems flood the bandwidth or resources of a targeted system, usually one or more Web servers. These systems are compromised by attackers using a variety of methods. It is an attempt to make a computer resource unavailable to its intended users. This type of attack can cause the following to occur: Saturate network resources. Disrupt connections between two computers, thereby preventing communications between services. Disrupt services on a specific computer.
Answer: D is incorrect. Dictionary attack is a type of password guessing attack. This type of attack uses a dictionary of common words to find out the password of a user. It can also use common words in either upper or lower case to find a password. There are many programs available on the Internet to automate and execute dictionary attacks.
Answer: C is incorrect. In an insertion attack, an IDS accepts a packet and assumes that the host computer will also accept it. But in reality, when a host system rejects the packet, the IDS accepts the attacking string that will exploit vulnerabilities in the IDS. Such attacks can badly infect IDS signatures and IDS signature analysis.
Answer: B is incorrect. An evasion attack is one in which an IDS rejects a malicious packet but the host computer accepts it. Since an IDS has rejected it, it does not check the contents of the packet. Hence, using this technique, an attacker can exploit the host computer. In many cases, it is quite simple for an attacker to send such data packets that can easily perform evasion attacks on an IDSs.
QUESTION NO: 121
Which of the following programming languages are compiled into machine code and directly executed by the CPU of a computer system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. C
B. Microosft.NET
C. Java EE
D. C++
210-255 pdf Answer: A,D
Explanation: C and C++ programming languages are unmanaged code. Unmanaged code is compiled into machine code and directly executed by the CPU of a computer system. Answer: C and B are incorrect. Java EE and Microsoft.Net are compiled into an intermediate code format.
QUESTION NO: 122
Which of the following is a standard that sets basic requirements for assessing the effectiveness of computer security controls built into a computer system?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS
C. TCSEC
D. SSAA
Answer: C
Explanation: Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria (TCSEC) is a United States Government Department of Defense (DoD) standard that sets basic requirements for assessing the effectiveness of computer security controls built into a computer system. TCSEC was used to evaluate, classify, and select computer systems being considered for the processing, storage, and retrieval of sensitive or classified information. It was replaced with the development of the Common Criteria international standard originally published in 2005. The TCSEC, frequently referred to as the Orange Book, is the centerpiece of the DoD Rainbow Series publications.
Answer: D is incorrect. System Security Authorization Agreement (SSAA) is an information security document used in the United States Department of Defense (DoD) to describe and accredit networks and systems. The SSAA is part of the Department of Defense Information Technology Security Certification and Accreditation Process, or DITSCAP (superseded by DIACAP). The DoD instruction (issues in December 1997, that describes DITSCAP and provides an outline for the SSAA document is DODI 5200.40. The DITSCAP application manual (DoD 8510.1- M), published in July 2000, provides additional details. Answer: A is incorrect. FITSAF stands for Federal Information Technology Security Assessment Framework. It is a methodology for assessing the security of information systems. It provides an approach for federal agencies. It determines how federal agencies are meeting existing policy and establish goals. The main advantage of FITSAF is that it addresses the requirements of Office of Management and Budget (OMB). It also addresses the guidelines provided by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIsT).
Answer: B is incorrect. The Federal Information Processing Standards (FIPS) are publicly announced standards developed by the United States federal government for use by all non-military government agencies and by government contractors. Many FIPS standards are modified versions of standards used in the wider community (ANSI, IEEE, ISO, etc.). Some FIPS standards were originally developed by the U.S. government. For instance, standards for encoding data (e.g., country codes), but more significantly some encryption standards, such as the Data Encryption Standard (FIPS 46-3) and the Advanced Encryption Standard (FIPS 197). In 1994, NOAA (Noaa) began broadcasting coded signals called FIPS (Federal Information Processing System) codes along with their standard weather broadcasts from local stations. These codes identify the type of emergency and the specific geographic area (such as a county) affected by the emergency.
QUESTION NO: 123
Which of the following elements of BCP process includes the areas of plan implementation, plan testing, and ongoing plan maintenance, and also involves defining and documenting the continuity strategy?
A. Business continuity plan development
B. Business impact assessment
C. Scope and plan initiation
D. Plan approval and implementation
210-255 vce Answer: A
Explanation: The business continuity plan development refers to the utilization of the information collected in the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) for the creation of the recovery strategy plan to support the critical business functions. The information gathered from the BIA is mapped out to make a strategy for creating a continuity plan. The business continuity plan development process includes the areas of plan implementation, plan testing, and ongoing plan maintenance. This phase also consists of defining and documenting the continuity strategy. Answer: C is incorrect. The scope and plan initiation process in BCP symbolizes the beginning of the BCP process. It emphasizes on creating the scope and the additional elements required to define the parameters of the plan. The scope and plan initiation phase embodies a check of the company’s operations and support services. The scope activities include creating a detailed account of the work
required, listing the resources to be used, and defining the management practices to be employed.
Answer: B is incorrect. The business impact assessment is a method used to facilitate business units to understand the impact of a disruptive event. This phase includes the execution of a vulnerability assessment. This process makes out the mission-critical areas and business processes that are important for the survival of business. It is similar to the risk assessment process. The function of a business impact assessment process is to create a document, which is used to help and understand what impact a disruptive event would have on the business.
Answer: D is incorrect. The plan approval and implementation process involves creating enterprise-wide awareness of the plan, getting the final senior management signoff, and implementing a maintenance procedure for updating the plan as required.
QUESTION NO: 124
Which of the following refers to a process that is used for implementing information security?
A. Classic information security model
B. Five Pillars model
C. Certification and Accreditation (C&A)
D. Information Assurance (IA)
Answer: C
Explanation: Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. The C&A process is used extensively
in the U.S. Federal Government. Some C&A processes include FISMA, NIACAP, DIACAP, and DCID 6/3. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system, made in support of security accreditation, to determine the extent to which the controls are implemented correctly, operating as intended, and producing the desired outcome with respect to meeting the security requirements for the system. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system and to explicitly accept the risk to agency operations (including
mission, functions, image, or reputation), agency assets, or individuals, based on the implementation of an agreed-upon set of security controls. Answer: D is incorrect. Information Assurance (IA) is the practice of managing risks related to the use, processing, storage, and
transmission of information or data and the systems and processes used for those purposes. While focused dominantly on information in digital form, the full range of IA encompasses not only digital but also analog or physical form. Information assurance as a field has grown from the practice of information security, which in turn grew out of practices and procedures of computer security.
Answer: A is incorrect. The classic information security model is used in the practice of Information Assurance (IA) to define assurance requirements. The classic information security model, also called the CIA Triad, addresses three attributes of information and information systems, confidentiality, integrity, and availability. This C-I-A model is extremely useful for teaching introductory and basic concepts of information security and assurance; the initials are an easy mnemonic to remember, and when properly understood, can prompt systems designers and users to address the most pressing aspects of assurance. Answer: B is incorrect. The Five Pillars model is used in the practice of Information Assurance (IA) to define assurance requirements. It was promulgated by the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) in a variety of publications, beginning with the National Information Assurance Glossary, Committee on National Security Systems Instruction CNSSI-4009. Here is the definition from that publication: “Measures that protect and defend information and information systems by ensuring their availability, integrity, authentication, confidentiality, and non-repudiation. These measures include providing for restoration of information systems by incorporating protection, detection, and reaction capabilities.” The Five Pillars model is sometimes criticized because authentication and non-repudiation are not attributes of information or systems; rather, they are procedures or methods useful to assure the integrity and authenticity of information, and to protect the confidentiality of the same.

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QUESTION 31
Which statement about the join process of the access point is true? Refer to the exhibit.

A. The time on the controller is outside of the certificates validity time interval, so the join phase failed.
B. The AP successfully joined the controller.
C. The AP moved from this controller to its primary controller.
D. The AP failed to join because the MAC address of the AP was not correct on the controller.
E. The controller rejected all discovery requests from the AP because they were not received on the management interface subnet.
300-370 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 32
Some users are experiencing inconsistent performance on their mobile devices as they move throughout the building when browsing the Internet. Which feature provides a more consistent user experiences?
A. low RSSI check
B. 802.11r
C. RX-SOP
D. optimized roaming
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
A mobile station in a factory contains an AP configured as a work group bridge that authenticates to a root AP using EAP-FAST. To be able to use the mobile station in further parts of the factory, another root AP is installed and also configured for EAP-FAST When the mobile station is attempting to roam to the other AP, it loses connection yet can still authenticate to the first one. What is the cause for the failed authentication on RAP2?
Refer to the exhibit.

QUESTION NO: 34
If you needed to replicate flow from a router and forward it in its native format to additional flow collectors, which Cascade device would you use?
A. Sensor
B. Express
C. Shark
D. Gateway
E. Gateway-VE
300-370 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
What is a benefit that Cascade provides that is not supported by most other network performance management solutions?
A. Identity integration to identify which users are logged into which client machines.
B. Integration with synthetic transaction tools to obtain response time information.
C. A fully functional CLI that is easier to use than a Web based GUI.
D. A Web based GUI that does not require a password or HTTPS connection allowing for easier connection.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
To which devices is it possible to send data directly to (not including flows from other Cascade devices)? (Select 2)
A. Sensor
B. Sensor-VE
C. Gateway
D. Profiler
E. Enterprise Profiler
F. Express
300-370 pdf Answer: C,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
Which of the following statements is true regarding SNMP polling and NTP syncing among Cascade components?
A. Cascade Gateway’s poll Netflow sources via SNMP, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
B. Cascade Profiler’s poll Netflow sources via SNMP, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP a common source.
C. Cascade Profiler’s poll Netflow sources via SNMP, while Cascade Profiler is the NTP source for Cascade Gateways and Cascade Sensors.
D. Cascade Gateway’s poll Netflow sources via SNMP, while Cascade Profiler is the NTP source for Cascade Gateways, Cascade Sensors and Cascade Sharks.
E. SNMP polling is not supported in Cascade.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 38
You can apply a View within Cascade Pilot to a trace clip:
A. If both the trace clip and View support indexing.
B. If the trace clip is not indexed and the View does not support indexing.
C. Any time you like.
D. If the capture job is running.
300-370 vce Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
What are the features available in Cascade Pilot that are NOT available in Cascade Pilot Personal Edition (PE)? (Select 3)
A. Drill down from Cascade Profiler
B. Indexing files for fast analysis
C. Visual troubleshooting and analysis
D. Distributed capture and analysis (Cascade Shark appliance)
E. Application Transaction diagrams
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40
What is lost by using sFlow and not NetFlow for Cascade?
A. Nothing; sFlow actually provides better data to Cascade since it is sampled packets and not just header data.
B. A loss of granularity as sFlow is sampled and doesn’t see every packet of a conversation.
C. Since Cascade takes the sampling rate of sFlow into account, nothing is lost.
D. sFlow should be configured to obtain granularity.
300-370 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
What two methods does the Profiler have for getting MAC address information? (Select 2)
A. SMTP integration
B. SNMP integration
C. DHCP integration
D. There is only one method of getting MAC address information.
E. Line monitoring for ARP requests
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
A capture job definition on Cascade Shark appliance may include:
A. A packet filter
B. A disk space allocation
C. One capture port or one aggregated port
D. Trend/indexing parameters
E. All of the above
300-370 dumps Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 43
When specifying the time-frame of a traffic report in Cascade Profiler, what happens when one selects a data resolution of automatic?
A. The Cascade Profiler determines the appropriate resolution to use, based on the time-frame selected.
B. The report runs from 1 minute flows if a flow list is selected from the report format options.
C. The resulting report indicates the data resolution the report was generated from.
D. The resulting report runs against Profiler periods instead of flow logs.
E. All of the above.
F. A, B, C only.
Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
To receive external notification for Cascade Profiler Alerts:
A. SMTP or SNMP must be configured.
B. I have to have an account on Cascade.
C. Lotus Notes has to be installed.
D. I need a Riverbed e-mail account.
300-370 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
What is the maximum number of flows a Profiler Express is licensed to process?
A. 25,000 flows per minute
B. 50,000 flows per minute
C. 75,000 flows per minute
D. 100,000 flows per minute
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
When Cascade Pilot is connected to Cascade Shark:
A. Cascade Shark interfaces and captures job traces appear under the devices tab within the sources panel.
B. Cascade Shark interfaces appear under the devices tab of the sources panel AND Cascade Shark capture job traces appear under the files tab of the sources panel.
C. Cascade Shark interfaces and captures job traces appear in the views panel.
D. Cascade Shark interfaces must be selected from the home menu to begin a capture.
300-370 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
How are trace clips created in Cascade Pilot? (Select 2)
A. Select a Capture Job, right-click, and select “Create Trace Clip”.
B. Drag a bar from a Bar Chart to the Capture Job.
C. Click the + button in the Capture Job item and select a time window.
D. Select a time window and apply a Cascade Pilot filter.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
Protocols that are typically monitored in TCP/IP networks by visibility tools include (Select 3):
A. SAN HBA Protocol
B. TCP Protocols such as HTTP and HTTPS
C. UDP Protocols such as SMTP and Video streaming
D. IPv4 Protocols including TCP, UDP, and ICMP
E. IPv4 Protocols such as x.25, TTY and TTL
300-370 exam Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 49
What is the maximum capacity of a Standard Cascade Profiler appliance in terms of the number of IP flows that it can process?
A. 100,000 Flows per Minute
B. 200,000 Flows per Minute
C. 300,000 Flows per Minute
D. 400,000 Flows per Minute
E. 500,000 Flows per Minute
F. 600,000 Flows per Minute
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
Which of the following are valid Cascade Profiler Report export formats? (Select 3)
A. XML
B. PDF
C. CSV
D. EDI
E. HTML
300-370 dumps Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
What are the Cascade Profiler Alert Levels?
A. Low and High
B. Emergency, Critical, Alert, Error, Warning, Notice, Informational, and Debug
C. Critical, Warning, and Informational
D. System Down, System Impaired, Attack, SLA/SLO Violation, and Security Policy Violation
E. Low, Med, and High
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
In the Cascade Profiler GUI, which Definitions can be used when running a query?
A. Applications
B. TCP Ports C.
Port Groups D.
QoS Name
E. Host Group Name
F. All the above
300-370 pdf Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53
What is the maximum number of 1GB capture ports that can be provisioned on the Cascade Shark appliance model CSK-03200?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
E. 12
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 54
On Cascade Profiler, Why would you want to create a generic group encompassing the 0.0.0.0/0 definition?
A. There is no reason to create this definition.
B. This definition can be used to look for all hosts on the network that are not in other groups.
C. This definition can be used to identify hosts that have incorrect IP address assignments.
D. This definition can be used to look for all hosts on the internal network that are not in other groups within the same group type.
E. This definition can be used to look for all hosts on the internal network that are not in other groups in any group type.
300-370 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
In the Cascade Profiler, what best describes a “Host Group”?
A. A logical collection of IP Addresses that can be grouped by region, application, and function.
B. A set of netflow collectors.
C. NetFlow senders.
D. A group of Ports.
E. A collection of MAC Addresses.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 56
When flows in excess of the licensed limit are received by a Profiler what happens to them?
A. They are cached for later processing.
B. They are ignored/dropped.
C. The user is able to choose which flows to keep and which to ignore.
D. All flows are processed but an alert is sent to the user.
300-370 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 57
What is the maximum number of capture jobs that can be created on a Cascade Shark appliance?
A. 1
B. 4
C. Equal to the maximum number of capture ports on the appliance
D. One capture job per capture port
E. Unlimited
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 58
Which of the following pieces of information is required when configuring an Cascade Enterprise Profiler?
A. BGP AS number
B. IP address of Sensor
C. Default gateway of Internet router
D. Subnet mask for entire corporate network
E. Subnet mask for all Cascade Enterprise Profiler modules
300-370 dumps Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 59
Where are Application Names used within the Cascade Profiler GUI?
A. On Dashboards
B. In Reports
C. In User Defined Policies
D. In Application Performance Policies
E. All of the above
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 60
Within Cascade Profiler, how can you create a definition that includes list of tcp ports?
A. Definitions->Host Groups
B. Definitions->Applications->Layer-7
C. Definitions->Port Groups
D. Definitions->Port Names
E. Integration->Switch Port Discovery
300-370 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 61
What are the primary differences between an Express and Standard Profiler?
A. There is no difference between an Express and Standard Profiler.
B. An Express Profiler has the option only for a built-in Sensor and cannot receive flow data.
C. A Standard Profiler has the option only for a built-in Sensor and cannot receive flow data.
D. An Express Profiler can handle more flows per minute then a Standard Profiler.
E. An Express Profiler has a built in Sensor and Gateway.
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 62
In the Cascade Profiler GUI, how frequently is the dashboard refreshed by default?
A. Every 15 seconds
B. Every 15 minutes
C. Every 5 minutes D.
Every 1 minute
E. Every 1 hour
300-370 vce Answer: D
Explanation:

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