CyberArk CAU302 Exam Dumps For 100% Preparation In CAU302 Exam
Obtaining the CyberArk CAU302 exam certificate leads to greater job satisfaction and higher wages. How do choose the right method to prepare for this CAU302 exam? Maybe they prepare for the CyberArk CAU302 exam through online courses, video tutorials, study guides, etc. Maybe they were on the right path, but in the end, their gloomy faces clearly showed their ultimate fear of the CAU302 exam. Pass4itsure.com CAU302 dumps will eliminate all confusion related to the final CAU302 exam and transform your fear into self-confidence. Pass4itsure has many years of exam experience! A group of professional Fortinet exam experts! Pass4itsure is the only credible name that provides real and updated CAU302 dumps preparations.
A Simple Errand For CyberArk CAU302 Exam Preparation
Pass4itsure provides you with the best and fullest CAU302 dumps learning materials to improve and complete the real test. It will be best if you focus on materials to help your CyberArk CAU302 plan. In your case, it may be ideal, and we have established three forms of our CAU302 dumps to meet your needs:
PDF Only: $45.99 Software Only: $49.99 Software + PDF: $59.99
Pass4itsure has three types of CAU302 dumps, which you can use according to your needs.
Real CAU302 PDF – Guaranteed Success
If you want to become CyberArk Certified and want to pass the CAU302 exam, the CAU302 PDF can help you easily succeed in the final CAU302 exam. Pass4itsure provides CyberArk CAU302 PDF questions to help you pass the CAU302 exam and give you useful knowledge. You can use it at home to judge your performance. After feedback from more than 100,000 professionals around the world, we have launched a variety of practical exam materials for CAU302. It is easy to use on your digital devices, and you can use it anytime, anywhere.
CyberArk CAU302 Software Practice Test – Eliminate Final Exam Stress
The CAU302 Software practice test provides you with a feel of the exam scene. The CAU302 practice test we conducted is designed based on the actual exam. These tests familiarize you with the pattern, syllabus, and difficulty of the questions. Therefore, the practical test helps candidates to become familiar with the real CAU302 test environment. The Pass4itsure CAU302 practice test is an excellent way to increase your confidence.
Complete and thorough CyberArk CAU302 dumps are accessible. Pass4itsure provides you with tough materials to improve your scheduling ability and make brave efforts in the test. This is why we have arranged CAU302 dumps, according to your wishes and needs, which will really support you in the real exam.
Get Updated Exam With 100% Money-Back Guarantee
In the event that you could not qualify for your test, we will refund your cash. Our group of specialists is here to support you! Your success is our number one priority. This is why we have provided a real CAU302 dump 100% pass guarantee. You should feel relaxed.
Get 15% Special Discount On CyberArk CAU302 Dumps | Coupon Code CyberArk
Huawei H12-211 Exam Dumps For 100% Preparation In H12-211 Exam
Obtaining the Huawei H12-211 exam certificate leads to greater job satisfaction and higher wages. How do choose the right method to prepare for this H12-211 exam? Maybe they prepare for the Huawei H12-211 exam through online courses, video tutorials, study guides, etc. Maybe they were on the right path, but in the end, their gloomy faces clearly showed their ultimate fear of the H12-211 exam. Pass4itsure.com H12-211 dumps will eliminate all confusion related to the final H12-211 exam and transform your fear into self-confidence. Pass4itsure has many years of exam experience! A group of professional Huawei exam experts! Pass4itsure is the only credible name that provides real and updated H12-211 dumps preparations.
A Simple Errand For Huawei H12-211 Exam Preparation
Pass4itsure provides you with the best and fullest H12-211 dumps learning materials to improve and complete the real test. It will be best if you focus on materials to help your Huawei H12-211 plan. In your case, it may be ideal, and we have established three forms of our H12-211 dumps to meet your needs:
PDF Only: $45.99 Software Only: $49.99 Software + PDF: $59.99
Pass4itsure has three types of H12-211 dumps, which you can use according to your needs.
Real H12-211 PDF – Guaranteed Success
If you want to become Huawei Certified and want to pass the H12-211 exam, the H12-211 PDF can help you easily succeed in the final H12-211 exam. Pass4itsure provides Huawei H12-211 PDF questions to help you pass the H12-211 exam and give you useful knowledge. You can use it at home to judge your performance. After feedback from more than 100,000 professionals around the world, we have launched a variety of practical exam materials for H12-211. It is easy to use on your digital devices, and you can use it anytime, anywhere.
H12-211 Software Practice Test – Eliminate Final Exam Stress
The H12-211 Software practice test provides you with a feel of the exam scene. The H12-211 practice test we conducted is designed based on the actual exam. These tests familiarize you with the pattern, syllabus, and difficulty of the questions. Therefore, the practical test helps candidates to become familiar with the real H12-211 test environment. The Pass4itsure H12-211 practice test is an excellent way to increase your confidence.
Complete and thorough Huawei H12-211 dumps are accessible. Pass4itsure provides you with tough materials to improve your scheduling ability and make brave efforts in the test. This is why we have arranged H12-211 dumps, according to your wishes and needs, which will really support you in the real exam.
Get Updated Exam With 100% Money-Back Guarantee
In the event that you could not qualify for your test, we will refund your cash. Our group of specialists is here to support you! Your success is our number one priority. This is why we have provided a real H12-211 dumps 100% pass guarantee. You should feel relaxed.
Get 15% Special Discount On Huawei H12-211 Dumps | Coupon Code HUAWEI
Network Appliance NS0-002 Exam Dumps For 100% Preparation In NS0-002 Exam
Obtaining the Network Appliance NS0-002 exam certificate leads to greater job satisfaction and higher wages. How do choose the right method to prepare for this NS0-002 exam? Maybe they prepare for the NetApp NS0-002 exam through online courses, video tutorials, study guides, etc. Maybe they were on the right path, but in the end, their gloomy faces clearly showed their ultimate fear of the NS0-002 exam. Pass4itsure.com NS0-002 dumps will eliminate all confusion related to the final NS0-002 exam and transform your fear into self-confidence. Pass4itsure has many years of exam experience! A group of professional Network Appliance exam experts! Pass4itsure is the only credible name that provides real and updated NS0-002 dumps preparations.
A Simple Errand For Network Appliance NS0-002 Exam Preparation
Pass4itsure provides you with the best and fullest NS0-002 dumps learning materials to improve and complete the real test. It will be best if you focus on materials to help your Network Appliance NS0-002 plan. In your case, it may be ideal, and we have established three forms of our NS0-002 dumps to meet your needs:
PDF Only: $45.99 Software Only: $49.99 Software + PDF: $59.99
Pass4itsure has three types of NS0-002 dumps, which you can use according to your needs.
Real NS0-002 PDF – Guaranteed Success
If you want to become a NetApp Certified Technology Associate and want to pass the NS0-002 exam, the NS0-002 PDF can help you easily succeed in the final NS0-002 exam. Pass4itsure provides NetApp NS0-002 PDF questions to help you pass the NS0-002 exam and give you useful knowledge. You can use it at home to judge your performance. After feedback from more than 100,000 professionals around the world, we have launched a variety of practical exam materials for NS0-002. It is easy to use on your digital devices, and you can use it anytime, anywhere.
NS0-002 Software Practice Test – Eliminate Final Exam Stress
The NS0-002 Software practice test provides you with a feel of the exam scene. The NS0-002 practice test we conducted is designed based on the actual exam. These tests familiarize you with the pattern, syllabus, and difficulty of the questions. Therefore, the practical test helps candidates to become familiar with the real NS0-002 test environment. The Pass4itsure NS0-002 practice test is an excellent way to increase your confidence.
Complete and thorough Network Appliance NS0-002 dumps are accessible. Pass4itsure provides you with tough materials to improve your scheduling ability and make brave efforts in the test. This is why we have arranged NS0-002 dumps, according to your wishes and needs, which will really support you in the real exam.
Get Updated Exam With 100% Money-Back Guarantee
In the event that you could not qualify for your test, we will refund your cash. Our group of specialists is here to support you! Your success is our number one priority. This is why we have provided a real NS0-002 dump 100% pass guarantee. You should feel relaxed.
Get 15% Special Discount On NetApp NS0-002 Dumps | Coupon Code NetApp
Is Amazon AWS Certified Specialty (ANS-C00, AXS-C01, DAS-C01) exam dumps useful? The answer is yes. To pass the Amazon AWS exam, (first: AWS exam dumps pdf, second: Pass4itsuse Amazon AWS expert). Visit the Amazon AWS Certified Specialty exam dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/aws-certified-specialty.html The trusted source of exam study materials. The Amazon AWS Certified Specialty (ANS-C00, AXS-C01, DAS-C01 exam) dumps question is updated here! The latest Amazon AWS exam questions can help you pass the exam!
Get Amazon AWS Certified Specialty (ANS-C00, AXS-C01, DAS-C01) exam dumps pdf
In my opinion, Pass4iture is the best online platform where you can get updated, valid, and verified Amazon AWS Certified Specialty (ANS-C00, AXS-C01, DAS-C01) exam dump pdf. This site not only provides real exam dumps but also provides a money-back guarantee for passing exams.
Amazon AWS Certified Specialty exam dumps pdf download:
Share AWS Certified Specialty (ANS-C00, AXS-C01, DAS-C01) exam practice questions for free
AWS Certified Specialty ANS-C00 Practice Test (part)
QUESTION 1 For _______ distributions, CloudFront does not cache cookies in edge caches. A. AMI B. Web C. RTMP D. Web and RTMP Correct Answer: C For RTMP distributions, when Amazon CloudFront requests an object from the origin server, it removes any cookies before forwarding the request to your origin. If your origin returns any cookies along with the object, CloudFront removes them before returning the object to the viewer. For RTMP distributions, CloudFront does not cache cookies in edge caches. Reference: click here
QUESTION 2 Your company is expanding its cloud infrastructure and moving many of its flat files and static assets to S3. You currently use a VPN to access your compute infrastructure, but you require more reliability for your static files as you are offloading all of your important data to AWS. What is your best course of action while keeping costs low? A. Create a Direct Connect connection using a Private VIF to access both compute and S3 resources. B. Create an S3 endpoint and create a route to the endpoint prefix-list for your VPN to allow access to your S3 resources. C. Create two Direct Connect connections. Each connected to a Private VIF to ensure maximum resiliency. D. Create a Direct Connect connection using a Public VIF and route your VPN over the DX connection to your VPN endpoint. Correct Answer: D An S3 endpoint cannot be used with a VPN. A Private VIF cannot access S3 resources. A Public VIF with a VPN will ensure security for your compute resources and access to your S3 resources. Two DX connections are very expensive and a Private VIF still won\\’t allow access to your S3 resources.
QUESTION 3 Which service would you use to see who changed your infrastructure? A. Config B. CloudTrail C. Flow Logs Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 You have just deployed a website that utilizes CloudFront, ELB, and S3 to serve content. When users access your site, they are seeing broken image links. What is most likely the problem? A. There is no record in Route 53 pointing cdn.yourdomain.com to the CloudFront ALIAS. B. You need to create Origin Access Identity for CloudFront and add it to your bucket policy. C. The images in S3 are saved as .png instead of .jpg. D. There is no rule in your bucket policy allowing public access. Correct Answer: B You must have an OAI if the bucket policy does not allow public access, which is bad practice.
QUESTION 5 Your company has decided to use AWS WorkSpaces for its hosted desktop solution. Your company has an existing AD of about 57,000 users, and you want to minimize authentication traffic from AWS to your datacenter. Your company has a lot of personnel changes, and it is crucial that these changes are reflected reliably. What two steps should you take? (Choose two.) A. Deploy Hosted AD in AWS. B. Deploy an AD Connector in AWS. C. Create a DX connection between the datacenter and AWS. D. Create a VPN between the datacenter AWS. Correct Answer: AC A VPN is not reliable enough, and an AD connector will cause too much authentication traffic.
QUESTION 6 You are your company\\’s AWS cloud architect. You have created a VPC topology that consists of 3 VPCs. You have a centralized VPC (VPC-Shared) that provides shared services to the remaining 2 departmental dedicated VPCs (VPCDept1 and VPC-Dept2). The centralized VPC is VPC peered to both of the departmental VPCs, that is a VPC peering connection exists between VPC-Shared and VPC-Dept1, and a VPC peering connection exists between VPC-Shared and VPCDept2. Select the correct option from the list below. A. Network traffic is possible between VPC-Shared instances and VPC-Dept1 and VPC-Dept2 instances as long as the appropriate routes and security groups are in place, but only for communication that is initiated from VPC1-Shared instances as the default peering bi-directional communication flag have been disabled. B. Instances within VPC-Dept1 can communicate directly with instances in VPC-Shared, as long as the appropriate routes and security groups are in place, and vice versa regardless of who initiates communication C. All network communication remains blocked between all VPCs until the respective peering bi-directional communication flags are set to the appropriate setting that allows traffic to flow. D. Network traffic is possible between VPC-Shared instances and VPC-Dept1 and VPC-Dept2 instances as long as the appropriate routes and security groups are in place, but only for communication that is initiated from VPC1-Shared instances as the default peering bi-directional communication flag has been enabled. Correct Answer: B Answers A, C, and D are incorrect answers as they reference a non-existing setting – there is no such thing as a “default peering bi-directional communication flag”. Reference: click here
QUESTION 7 Your company needs to directly update an S3 bucket that serves as a CloudFront origin with the most reliability possible. Your company also has a set of private EC2 servers that it needs to access with the same reliability. Which combination will provide the best solution? A. A Virtual Gateway and a Public VIF B. A Private VIF is all you need to access all AWS resources. C. A Hosted VIF and a Private VIF D. A Public VIF and a Private VIF Correct Answer: D The Public VIF will allow access to the S3 bucket, and the Private VIF will allow access to the EC2 instances.
QUESTION 8 What is the DNS server address for a VPC (10.111.0.0/16) with a subnet of 10.111.4.0/24? A. 10.111.0.2 B. 10.111.4.2 C. 10.111.1.2 D. 10.111.4.1 Correct Answer: A The DNS server is the base VPC CIDR + 2.
AWS Certified Specialty AXS-C01 Practice Test (part)
QUESTION 1 The information below details a portion of an interaction model in JSON: What is wrong with this interaction model?
A. The intent naming convention is not valid in the situation. B. The two intents do not have unique slots. C. The two intents do not have unique utterances. D. The JSON is not properly constructed and would cause an error. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 What are the prerequisites for implementing account linking for Amazon Alexa smart home skills? A. OAuth 2.0 with either implicit grant flow or authorization code grant flow B. OAuth 2.0 with authorization code grant flow C. OpenID Connect wit JSON.Web Token (JWT) D. OAuth 1.0/2.0 with implicit grant flow Correct Answer: B Reference: click here
QUESTION 3 An Alexa Skill Builder is developing a skill that enables users to purchase train tickets. The Builder wants to give users the ability to modify the departure time if they are misunderstood, before the skill proceeds to purchase the tickets. Which option should be used to implement this functionality within the session? A. Implement AMAZON.FallbackIntent so the user can stop the execution when they have been misunderstood. B. Implement AMAZON.StopIntent so the user can stop the execution and implement reprompt with a new invocation of the skill. C. Implement AMAZON.CancelIntent so the user can cancel the order, then set shouldEndSession to false, and prompt the user for the next action. D. Implement the welcome message, providing clear instructions to the user describing how to format an order. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 An Alexa Skill Builder built a skill with the following interaction model: Which utterance would invoke HelloIntent?
A. “Alexa, use my first skill to say hello.” B. “Alexa, ask my first skill to say hello to John.” C. “Alexa, open my first skill.” D. “Alexa, say hello to my first skill.” Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 An Alexa Skill Builder published a skill and now wants to update it. Which of the following changes will make it necessary to have the skill re-certified? (Choose two.) A. Adding a new intent in the interaction model B. Changing the text of a skill response C. Adding a sentence to the skill description D. Changing the URL of the image on a skill card E. Updating the backend to point to a new database Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 6 An Alexa Skill Builder is creating a skill that requires the user to authenticate by speaking a PIN before an order status can be retrieved. According to best practices, how should the PIN value be collected? A. Use AMAZON.SearchQuery B. Use AMAZON.FOUR_DIGIT_NUMBER C. Use multiple slots of type AMAZON.NUMBER D. Use a custom slot with zero to nine as values. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 An Alexa Builder is working on a skill for music streaming. When a user says, “Alexa, stop” the skill needs to know where the user was in the song, so that when returning to the skill in a new session, the song can pick up where it left off. Which section of the following JSON contains the data indicating where the song left off?
A. session.attributes B. Context.AudioPlayer C. session.user D. context.System.device.supportedInterfaces.AudioPlayer Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 An Alexa Skill Builder has published a skill to the Alexa Skills Store, but soon after realizes that Amazon Alexa is saying an incorrect word in one of the responses. What is the recommended method for the Builder to correct this issue? A. Correct the response in a new endpoint, and after updating the In Development version of the skill, redeploy it. B. Access the In Development version of the skill, alter the intent that was causing the incorrect word, then resubmit the skill for certification. C. Edit the response in a new endpoint, and after updating the In Development version of the skill, resubmit it for certification. D. Correct the response in the existing endpoint of the Live version of the skill, then redeploy it. Correct Answer: A
AWS Certified Specialty DAS-C01 Practice Test (part)
QUESTION 1 A media analytics company consumes a stream of social media posts. The posts are sent to an Amazon Kinesis data stream partitioned on user_id. An AWS Lambda function retrieves the records and validates the content before loading the posts into an Amazon Elasticsearch cluster. The validation process needs to receive the posts for a given user in the order they were received. A data analyst has noticed that, during peak hours, the social media platform posts take more than an hour to appear in the Elasticsearch cluster. What should the data analyst do reduce this latency? A. Migrate the validation process to Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose. B. Migrate the Lambda consumers from standard data stream iterators to an HTTP/2 stream consumer. C. Increase the number of shards in the stream. D. Configure multiple Lambda functions to process the stream. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 A company that produces network devices has millions of users. Data is collected from the devices on an hourly basis and stored in an Amazon S3 data lake. The company runs analyses on the last 24 hours of data flow logs for abnormality detection and to troubleshoot and resolve user issues. The company also analyzes historical logs dating back 2 years to discover patterns and look for improvement opportunities. The data flow logs contain many metrics, such as date, timestamp, source IP, and target IP. There are about 10 billion events every day. How should this data be stored for optimal performance? A. In Apache ORC partitioned by date and sorted by source IP B. In compressed .csv partitioned by date and sorted by source IP C. In Apache Parquet partitioned by source IP and sorted by date D. In compressed nested JSON partitioned by source IP and sorted by date Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 A company wants to improve the data load time of a sales data dashboard. Data has been collected as .csv files and stored within an Amazon S3 bucket that is partitioned by date. The data is then loaded to an Amazon Redshift data warehouse for frequent analysis. The data volume is up to 500 GB per day. Which solution will improve data loading performance? A. Compress .csv files and use an INSERT statement to ingest data into Amazon Redshift. B. Split large .csv files, then use a COPY command to load data into Amazon Redshift. C. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to ingest data into Amazon Redshift. D. Load the .csv files in an unsorted key order and vacuum the table in Amazon Redshift. Correct Answer: C Reference: click here
QUESTION 4 A media company wants to perform machine learning and analytics on the data residing in its Amazon S3 data lake. There are two data transformation requirements that will enable the consumers within the company to create reports: 1. Daily transformations of 300 GB of data with different file formats landing in Amazon S3 at a scheduled time. 2. One-time transformations of terabytes of archived data residing in the S3 data lake. Which combination of solutions cost-effectively meets the company\\’s requirements for transforming the data? (Choose three.) A. For daily incoming data, use AWS Glue crawlers to scan and identify the schema. B. For daily incoming data, use Amazon Athena to scan and identify the schema. C. For daily incoming data, use Amazon Redshift to perform transformations. D. For daily incoming data, use AWS Glue workflows with AWS Glue jobs to perform transformations. E. For archived data, use Amazon EMR to perform data transformations. F. For archived data, use Amazon SageMaker to perform data transformations. Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 5 A global company has different sub-organizations, and each sub-organization sells its products and services in various countries. The company\\’s senior leadership wants to quickly identify which sub-organization is the strongest performer in each country. All sales data is stored in Amazon S3 in Parquet format. Which approach can provide the visuals that senior leadership requested with the least amount of effort? A. Use Amazon QuickSight with Amazon Athena as the data source. Use heat maps as the visual type. B. Use Amazon QuickSight with Amazon S3 as the data source. Use heat maps as the visual type. C. Use Amazon QuickSight with Amazon Athena as the data source. Use pivot tables as the visual type. D. Use Amazon QuickSight with Amazon S3 as the data source. Use pivot tables as the visual type. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 A marketing company is using Amazon EMR clusters for its workloads. The company manually installs third-party libraries on the clusters by logging in to the master nodes. A data analyst needs to create an automated solution to replace the manual process. Which options can fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.) A. Place the required installation scripts in Amazon S3 and execute them using custom bootstrap actions. B. Place the required installation scripts in Amazon S3 and execute them through Apache Spark in Amazon EMR. C. Install the required third-party libraries in the existing EMR master node. Create an AMI out of that master node and use that custom AMI to re-create the EMR cluster. D. Use an Amazon DynamoDB table to store the list of required applications. Trigger an AWS Lambda function with DynamoDB Streams to install the software. E. Launch an Amazon EC2 instance with Amazon Linux and install the required third-party libraries on the instance. Create an AMI and use that AMI to create the EMR cluster. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7 A company is building a data lake and needs to ingest data from a relational database that has time-series data. The company wants to use managed services to accomplish this. The process needs to be scheduled daily and bring incremental data only from the source into Amazon S3. What is the MOST cost-effective approach to meet these requirements? A. Use AWS Glue to connect to the data source using JDBC Drivers. Ingest incremental records only using job bookmarks. B. Use AWS Glue to connect to the data source using JDBC Drivers. Store the last updated key in an Amazon DynamoDB table and ingest the data using the updated key as a filter. C. Use AWS Glue to connect to the data source using JDBC Drivers and ingest the entire dataset. Use appropriate Apache Spark libraries to compare the dataset, and find the delta. D. Use AWS Glue to connect to the data source using JDBC Drivers and ingest the full data. Use AWS DataSync to ensure the delta only is written into Amazon S3. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 A hospital uses wearable medical sensor devices to collect data from patients. The hospital is architecting a near-realtime solution that can ingest the data securely at scale. The solution should also be able to remove the patient\\’s protected health information (PHI) from the streaming data and store the data in durable storage. Which solution meets these requirements with the least operational overhead? A. Ingest the data using Amazon Kinesis Data Streams, which invokes an AWS Lambda function using Kinesis Client Library (KCL) to remove all PHI. Write the data in Amazon S3. B. Ingest the data using Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to write the data to Amazon S3. Have Amazon S3 trigger an AWS Lambda function that parses the sensor data to remove all PHI in Amazon S3. C. Ingest the data using Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to write the data to Amazon S3. Have the data stream launch an AWS Lambda function that parses the sensor data and removes all PHI in Amazon S3. D. Ingest the data using Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to write the data to Amazon S3. Implement a transformation AWS Lambda function that parses the sensor data to remove all PHI. Correct Answer: C Reference: click here
What is the best way to pass Citrix 1Y0-403 Exam? Get the Citrix 1Y0-403 dumps and 1Y0-403 practice questions. Click https://www.pass4itsure.com/1y0-403.html has cracked the latest Citrix 1Y0-403 real exam questions, which can help you test all the related exam topics.
Guaranteed Success with Citrix 1Y0-403 Dumps
From countless Citrix 1Y0-403 exam dumps and preparation materials, absolutely nothing is more trustworthy than Pass4itsure Citrix 1Y0-403 dumps.
Offer Free Citrix 1Y0-403 Dumps
Citrix 1Y0-403 Practice Test With 1Y0-403 Questions
Citrix 1Y0-403 Practice Test With 1Y0-403 Questions
QUESTION 1 Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment. The table in the exhibit lists details about the requirements of the current user groups and their Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machine workloads. Click the Exhibit button to view the table.
The architect should scale the hardware used to host the virtual machines (VMs) for User Group 1 to ________ cores. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.) A. 32 B. 24 C. 96 D. 64 E. 16 Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 2 Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment. The table in the exhibit lists details about the requirements of the current user groups and their Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machine workloads. Click the Exhibit button to view the table.
The architect should scale the hardware used to host the virtual machines (VMs) for User Group 1 to __________ cores. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.) A. 32 B. 64 C. 96 D. 24 E. 16 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 A Citrix Architect needs to enable the security of the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) by evaluating the `EnableVdaSSL.ps1 -Enable\\’ script. Which supported SSL protocol version is least secure when using the default settings of the script? A. TLS 1.0 B. SSL 3.0 C. TLS 1.2 D. TLS 1.1 E. SSL 1.0 F. SSL 2.0 Correct Answer: B Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/xenapp-and-xendesktop/7-15-ltsr/secure/tls.html
QUESTION 4 Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment for a company with 2 branch offices connected over a WAN link. Each location will maintain its own Citrix Site and be configured for disaster recovery (DR) to allow users to failover if 1 Site has an outage. Management wants to implement a strong profile solution to manage user profiles. Each user maintains a profile that consists of user documents, application settings, and other personalization settings that must be available to them at all times. Which step should the architect perform to ensure that profile requirements are met? A. Implement Citrix Profile Management for all users with Windows Folder Redirection configured, and Microsoft Distributed File System Replication (DFSR) active-active profile replication configured over the WAN connection. B. Implement Citrix Profile Management for all users with Microsoft Distributed File System Replication (DFSR) active-passive profile replication configured over the WAN connection. C. Implement Citrix Profile Management for all users with Microsoft Distributed File System Replication (DFSR) active-active profile replication configured over the WAN connection. D. Implement Citrix Profile Management for all users with Active write back enabled and Microsoft Distributed File System Replication (DFSR) active-active profile replication configured over the WAN connection. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment. The architect has identified the requirements, based on the assessment and early stages of the design. Click the Exhibit button to view the requirements.
Additionally, the IT team identified 2 provisioning strategy requirements: Should be compatible with planned design decisions Should minimize the required time to perform image and application updates Which provisioning method should the architect use for the environment, based on the design decisions and requirements are shown in the exhibit? A. Machine Creation Services (MCS) with App Layering B. Manual Provisioning with App Layering C. Manual Provisioning D. Citrix Provisioning with App Layering E. Citrix Provisioning F. Machine Creation Services (MCS) Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a Citrix Virtual Desktops environment. The Graphic Editors Group uses a graphics-intensive and media-rich application. Graphic editors will be provided with a Windows Server 2016 Desktop with NVIDIA graphics hardware acceleration. HDX 3D Pro and Server VDI options were selected during the command-line installation of the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA). Which limitation will affect the Graphic Editors Group? A. Each virtual desktop requires a dedicated NVIDIA graphics card. B. Support is available only for a single user session per VDA. C. The Browser Content Redirection feature is NOT available. D. Support is limited to the Thinwire graphics protocol. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Scenario: An infrastructure team has stated that the new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops virtualization host will have the specifications shown in the exhibit. Click the Exhibit button to view the specifications.
QUESTION 8 Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment. As part of graphics-mode design considerations the architect determined that one User Group requires hardware acceleration with CPU-enabled Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines for 3D graphics-design-type applications. Which graphics mode needs to be configured for this specific group? A. Visual quality = Build to Lossless B. Visual quality = Always Lossless C. Optimize for 3D graphics workload = Disabled D. Optimize for 3D graphics workload = Enabled Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment for a company that maintains branch offices in New York, Chicago, and Miami. Management has described the following requirements for the environment: The Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops Site must be located in the company headquarters in Miami. All users will only need to access their default local print queue from within their HDX sessions. Users in Chicago need access to printers hosted on a Citrix Universal Print Server located in New York. Printing performance and bandwidth usage must be optimized where possible. The environment must be highly available. The auto-created client printer models must function with no additional configuration needed. Click the Exhibit button to review the printing requirements.
What does the architect need to do to meet the printing requirements for the users in Chicago? A. Enable the Auto-create client printers policy with the `Auto-create all client printers\\’ setting enabled. Enable the Universal print driver usage policy to `Use universal printing only\\’. Apply the policy to all users. Then, install and configure the Citrix Universal Print Server components and configure the Universal Print Server policy to `Enabled with no fallback to Windows native remote printing\\’. Last, create a session printer policy, add the network printers that will use the Universal Print Server, and apply the policy to the users in Chicago. B. Enable the Auto-create client printers policy with the `Auto-create all client printers\\’ setting enabled. Enable the Universal print driver usage policy to `Use universal printing only\\’. Apply the policy to Chicago users. Then, install and configure the Citrix Universal Print Server components and configure the Universal Print Server policy to `Enabled with fallback to Windows native remote printing\\’. Last, create a session printer policy, add the network printers that will use the Universal Print Server, and apply the policy to all users. C. Enable the Auto-create client printers policy with `Auto-create all client\\’s default printer only\\’ setting enabled. Enable the Universal print driver usage policy to `Use universal printing only if the requested driver is unavailable\\’. Apply the policy to all users. Then, install and configure the Citrix Universal Print Server components and configure the Universal Print Server policy to `Enabled with fallback to Windows native remote printing\\’. Last, create a session printer policy, add the network printers that will use the Universal Print Server, and apply the policy to all users. D. Enable the Auto-create client printers policy with `Auto-create all client\\’s default printer only\\’ setting enabled. Enable the Universal print driver usage policy to `Use universal printing only\\’. Apply the policy to all users. Then, install and configure the Citrix Universal Print Server components and configure the Universal Print Server policy to `Enabled with fallback to Windows native remote printing\\’. Last, create a session printer policy, add the network printers that will use the Universal Print Server, and apply the policy to the users in Chicago. Correct Answer: D Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-virtual-apps-desktops/policies/reference/ica-policy-settings/printing-policysettings/client-printers-policy-settings.html
QUESTION 10 Scenario: The IT team of a company configured its Citrix environment on Microsoft Azure. Load on the servers is nominal during the offseason, but during peak season, load increases on the infrastructure servers. This load varies from year to year. A Citrix Architect is asked to design a solution that dynamically increases and decreases the number of infrastructure servers. What should the architect recommend the IT team create in Microsoft Azure to meet this demand? A. Availability sets B. Resource group C. Scale sets D. Availability domains Correct Answer: B Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/advanced-concepts/implementation-guides/citrix-adc-vpx-on-azure-autoscaledeployment-guide.html
QUESTION 11 A Citrix Architect is designing the Access Layer for a company that supports active-active mode for Citrix Gateway, as well as an on-premises, two-factor authentication solution. Which feature supports this requirement? A. Citrix ADC Standard edition or higher B. Citrix ADC Cluster C. High-availability pair D. Citrix Gateway Service Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 What are three things a Citrix Architect should when using thin clones with Machine Creation Services (MCS)? (Choose three.) A. Storage and virtual machine (VM) migration may be more complex when compared to full clones. B. Provisioning speed is slower when compared to full clones. C. Storage fragmentation may occur over time. D. Storage space should be closely monitored. E. Higher storage space is required when compared to full clones. Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 13 Scenario: A Citrix Architect has developed the hardware requirements for a small production Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment as follows: Access to the environment hosted in a single data center Ability to perform maintenance on the environment without requiring an outage Keep management efforts to a minimum Which hardware requirement does the architect need to include for Citrix Hypervisor hosts to meet the customer\\’s needs? A. N+1 Citrix Hypervisor hosts in a single cluster/pool B. Separate Citrix Hypervisor cluster/pool in an alternate data center C. Multiple individual Citrix Hypervisor hosts in the same data center D. Separate Citrix Hypervisor clusters/pools in the same data center Correct Answer: D
Pmtrainingprep collected all the related Citrix 1Y0-403 dumps questions, which are the best and latest in the whole market. Read and study all Citrix 1Y0-403 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/1y0-403.html Q&As: 61.
Most of the latest Dell dumps, the latest and updated example questions or the Dell exams DEA-1TT4, DES-1721, E20-593, E20-597 practice tests are available on Pmtrainingprep and the first attempt to pass the guarantee. https://www.pass4itsure.com/dell.html Dell exam dumps – Dell exam questions!
Free Download Dell Exam Dumps PDF Questions for your Practice:
The secret of passing the Dell exam-Real Dell exam dumps 2020
This is the goal of Pmtrainingprep, the purpose is to provide the best Dell exam dumps for those aspiring, for DEA-1TT4, DES-1721, E20-593, E20-597 exams.
Key study materials About DEA-1TT4 Exam:
Expertly Designed & Valid DEA-1TT Questions: Practice Test
QUESTION 1 Based on the exhibit, what does the “X”, “Y”, and “Z” represent in a NAS environment?
A. X = FC SAN, Y = IP Network, and Z = NAS Gateway B. X = IP Network, Y = FC SAN, and Z = NAS Gateway C. X = FC SAN, Y = NAS Gateway, and Z= IP Network D. X = IP Network, Y = NAS Gateway, and Z = FC SAN Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 In a compute-based storage area network (SAN), what is a function of the metadata manager? A. Holds cluster-wide mapping information and load balancing in a compute-based SAN. B. Performs the I/O operations on the local storage of a compute system as requested by a client. C. Provides an interface to the software-defined storage controller. D. Controls all data read and write operations in a compute-based SAN. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 When using the erasure coding technique in an object-based storage system, data is divided into 12 data segments and 4 coding segments. What is the maximum number of disk drive failures against which data is protected by the configuration? A. 3 B. 4 C. 8 D. 12 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Why are organizations moving towards a modern data center implementation? A. Develop modern applications in the public cloud without having the right skill set in-house. B. Ability to be agile, operate in real time, and develop intelligent products. C. Deploy only unified and converged IT resources to reduce the management complexity. D. Reduce the cost of managing data center components by using a self-service catalog. Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.actualtechmedia.com/wp-content/uploads/2018/05/Building-a-Modern-Data-Center-ebook.pdf
DEA-1TT4 Exam VideoOnline teaching
Expertly Designed & Valid DES-1721 Questions: Practice Test
QUESTION 1
Based on the exhibit, a customer is using Virtual Port Mode. If the primary path for the controller on the “left” is disconnected while running an IOmeter test for a volume owned by the “left” controller, will the system survive failover? A. Yes, Virtual Port Mode will failover the I/O through the other available paths. B. No, Virtual Port Mode does not support port failover. C. No, the system does not have reserved paths to perform failover. D. Yes, the reserved path will be active and I/O will continue. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Why should Legacy Port Mode be selected rather than Virtual Port Mode on an SC Series storage array? A. Virtual Port Mode requires NPIV support B. Legacy Port Mode is easier to set up and more reliable C. Virtual Port Mode is difficult to set up D. Virtual Port Mode does not support ALUA Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which SC Series licenses are applied at the factory? A. SC4020 and SC7020 B. SC7020 and SCv2000 C. SC8000 and SC9000 D. SCv2000 and SC8000 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Why would the Key Management Server (KMS) Settings page appear during installation? A. Page appears only if SED drives are present B. Page only appears if an external KMS is defined during setup and configuration C. Page is standard and always appears as part of the installation and configuration D. Page only appears if a security certificate is not generated Correct Answer: A Reference: http://en.community.dell.com/cfs-file/__key/telligent-evolution-componentsattachments/13-4491-00-00-20-44-02-04/ Securing_2D00_SC_2D00_Series_2D00_storage_2D00_best_2D00_practice s_2D00_Dell_2D00_2016_2D002800_BP1082_2900_.pdf?forcedownload=true
QUESTION 5 A customer is running the Dell Storage Manager (DSM) Suite as a software stack on Microsoft Windows. To reduce the Microsoft licensing costs, the customer wants to switch to the DSM Virtual Appliance. Which recommended deployment should the customer use? A. Configure as a Primary Data Collector B. Configure as a Remote Data Collector C. Migrate the DSM database manually D. Migrate from the existing Data Collector Correct Answer: D
DES-1721 Exam VideoOnline teaching
Expertly Designed & Valid E20-593 Questions: Practice Test
QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit.
In the NMM backup workflow, which process is shown in the box marked “A”? A. nsrsnap_vss_save B. nsrsnap_save C. nsr_moss_save D. nsr_ad_save Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Based on the exhibit, what is the size of the Dell EMC NetWorker synthetic full backup on Saturday? A. 1.5 TB B. 1.7 TB C. 2.1 TB D. 2.45 TB Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 When adding an EMC NetWorker server\\’s name into the /nsr/res/servers file of a client, which service must be restarted on the client for the change to take effect? A. nsrexecd B. nsrd C. nsrindexd D. nsrdb Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A customer is running an EMC NetWorker 7.6 server on a UNIX platform and wants to monitor backup operations from the command line. Which utility can be used? A. nsrinfo B. nsrmmd C. nsrjb D. nsrwatch Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 An EMC NetWorker customer uses a custom schedule for backups and has disabled autostart in all savegroups. Backup reports indicate that a bootstrap backup occurs after each savegroup is run. What can you do to ensure that only one bootstrap backup occurs daily? A. Place the NetWorker server in its own group and enable autostart. B. Run savegrp -O manually for each group. C. Disable manual saves in the server configuration. D. Run a savefs -O manually for each group. Correct Answer: A
Expertly Designed & Valid E20-597 Questions: Practice Test
QUESTION 1 An Administrator needs to back up a Windows file server that has a million small files in a high density file system. What is the best way to fulfill the Administrator\\’s requirements? A. Block level backup using SnapImage B. Volume level backup C. Enable client-side compression D. Increase client parallelism Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 A backup administrator is configuring Dell EMC Networker to use Data Domain Cloud Tier devices. During the configuration, a message appears that the Data Domain data movement policy will be updated to an app-based policy. What is a function of the app-based policy? A. Direct the NetWorker clone action to copy data to the Data Domain Cloud Tier device B. Direct the NetWorker backup action to copy data directly to the cloud provider C. Direct the NetWorker backup action to copy data to the Data Domain device D. Direct the Data Domain system to copy data to the cloud provider Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/en-us/collaterals/unauth/technical-guides-supportinformation/products/networking-4/docu85859.pdf
QUESTION 3 What is a benefit of using remote devices in Dell EMC NetWorker? A. Allow the backup workload to be distributed to multiple storage nodes B. Save backup time by using image-level backup processing C. Isolate groups of clients from other clients in the datazone D. Reduce the capacity requirements for backup storage Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 A company is running an EMC NetWorker server on a UNIX platform and wants to monitor backup operations from the UNIX command line. Which utility can be used? A. nsrwatch B. nsradmin C. nsrinfo D. nsralist Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 In EMC NetWorker, which utility is used to view the “daemon.raw” file using the locale of the current host? A. nsr_render_log B. nsr_la C. nsr_layout D. nsr_task Correct Answer: A
E20-597 Exam VideoOnline teaching
Get 12% Special Dicount Offer For Dell Dumps:
Pass4itsure Dell Exam Dumps are handy to use on any electronic device and are made available for downloading just after the payment.
100% Money Back Guarantee with Dell Exam PDF Dumps:
Any Pass4itsure.com user who fails the corresponding exam has 30 days from the date of purchase of Exam on Pass4itsure.com for a full refund.
Pass4itsure Dell dumps not only brings about changes in content, but also enhances its ability to apply to your better Dell Exam practice test https://www.pass4itsure.com/dell.html Practice exam before the real Dell exam on our website.
How tough is the Docker Certified Associate (DCA) exam? It’s not easy to tell you clearly! Actual DCA exam dumps (Q&As) important to you. If you need more practical knowledge on Docker Certification Associate test, please visit https://www.pass4itsure.com/dca.html Docker Certification Associate test learning path. Contains: DCA exam PDF dumps, DCA exam questions!
Exam techniques for Success in docker DCA exam: PDF dumps
Here, get the latest Docker DCA exam questions
Latest Docker DCA exam video tutorial
Which is best to choose, CCC or DCA?
Why you choose Pass4itsure
Pass4itsure discount code 2020
Exam techniques for Success in Docker DCA exam: PDF dumps
Effective technique goes beyond the exam hall. Pass4itsure is providing high quality and validated exam dumps that will help you prepare for the Docker Certified Associate DCA exam.
QUESTION 1 Which set of commands can identify the publishd port(s) for a container? (Choose 1.) A. \\’docker port inspect\\’, \\’docker container inspect\\’ B. \\’docker container inspect\\’, docker port\\’ C. \\’docker info\\’,\\’docker network inspect\\’ D. \\’docker network inspect\\’,\\’docker port\\’ Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 What is the purpose of multi-stage builds? A. Better logical separation of Dockerfile instructions for better readability B. Optimizing images by copying artifacts selectively from previous stages C. Better caching when building Docker images D. Faster image builds by allowing parallel execution of Docker builds Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 What is the difference between the ADD and COPY dockerfile instructions? (choosen 2) A. ADD supports compression format handling while COPY does not. B. COPY supports regular expression handling while ADD does not. C. COPY supports compression format handling while ADD does not. D. ADD support remote URL handling while COPY does not. E. ADD supports regular expression handling while COPY does not. Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 4 You have just executed \\’docker swarm leave\\’ on a node. What command can be run on the same node to confirm it has left the cluster? A. docker node ls B. docker system info C. docker system status D. docker system status Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Will this action upgrade Docker Engine CE to Docker Engine EE? Solution: Uninstall \\’docker-ce\\’ package before installing \\’docker-ee\\’ package. A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Is this statement correct? Solution: A Dockerfile provides instructions for building a Docker image A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 One of several containers in a pod is marked as unhealthy after failing its livenessProbe many times. Is this the action taken by the orchestrator to fix the unhealthy container? Solution: Kubernetes automatically triggers a user-defined script to attempt to fix the unhealthy container. A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Are these conditions sufficient for Kubernetes to dynamically provision a persistentVolume, assuming there are no limitations on the amount and type of available external storage? Solution: A default storageClass is specified, and subsequently a persistentVolumeClaim is created. A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which one of the following commands will result in the volume being removed automatically once the container has exited? A. \\’docker run –del -v /foo busybox\\’ B. \\’docker run –read-only -v /foo busybox\\’ C. \\’docker run –rm -v /foo busybox\\’ D. \\’docker run –remove -v /foo busybox\\’ Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which \\’docker run\\’ flag lifts cgroup limitations? A. \\’docker run –isolation\\’ B. \\’docker run –cap-drop\\’ C. \\’docker run –privileged\\’ D. \\’docker run –cpu-period\\’ Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 A docker service \\’web\\’ is running with a scale factor of 1 (replicas = 1). Bob intends to use the command \\’docker service update –replicas=3 web\\’. Alice intends to use the command \\’docker service scale web=3\\’. How do the outcomes oft these two commands differ? A. Bob\\’s command results in an error. Alice\\’s command updates the number of replicas of the \\’web\\’ service to 3. B. Bob\\’s command only updates the service definition, but no new replicas are started. Alice\\’s command results in the actual scaling up of the \\’web\\’ service. C. Bob\\’s command updates the number of replicas of the \\’web\\’ service to 3. Alice\\’s command results in an error. D. Both Bob\\’s and Alice\\’s commands result in exactly the same outcome, which is 3 instances of the \\’web\\’ service. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 How do you configure Docker engine to use a registry that is not configured with TLS certificates from a trusted CA? A. Set IGNORE_TLS in the \\’daemon.json\\’ configuration file. B. Set and export the IGNORE_TLS environment variable on the command line C. Set INSECURE_REGISTRY in the \\’/etc/docker/default\\’ configuration file D. Pass the \\’–insecure.-registry\\’ flag to the daemon at run time Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 A user is having problems running Docker. Which of the following will start Docker in debug mode? A. Set the debug key to true in the \\’daemon.json\\’ file. B. Start the \\’dockerd\\’ process manually with the \\’–logging\\’ flag set to debug C. Set the logging key to debug in the \\’daemon.json\\’ file. D. Start the \\’dockerd\\’ process manually with the \\’–raw-logs\\’ flag set to debug Correct Answer: A
Latest Docker DCA exam video tutorial
Which is best to choose, CCC or DCA?
DCA only contains a computer application diploma, you will learn about the Office software package, detailed information about the computer generation, basic Internet knowledge, etc.
CCC Computer Concept Course Here you will learn the basics of operating systems, office software packages, detailed information generated by computers, introduction to the Internet, and Internet communication media.
DCA has almost same curricular as CCC but CCC is govt project while DCA is state or any NGO, Trust project and most of them will not take exam before giving Diploma.
CCC is much better than DCA.
Note: The CCC certificate is almost essential for obtaining government positions.
Why you choose Pass4itsure
Pass4itsure discount code 2020
Please read the picture carefully to get 12% off! Latest discount code “2020PASS” – Pass4itsure.
Here you can find free PDF dump for DCA exam, related questions Get the latest Docker DCA test questions. Join now https://www.pass4itsure.com/dca.html to get more of the most reliable Docker DCA exam dumps materials.
How can I pass the Cisco 300-615 DCIT exam? You need to do two things: First: exam dumps practice test, Second: Pass4itsure Cisco expert.) You can get free Cisco 300-615 dumps pdf here. Go newest Cisco 300-615 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-615.html Study hard!
– Actual Cisco 300-615 dumps pdf
Valid Cisco 300-615 dumps – Cisco Certified Network Professional Q&A
Cisco 300-615 test video
Use the promotional code (Cisco 300-615) dumps before purchasing
Pass4itsure brings Cisco 300-615 dumps questions in three formates
100% money-back assure on Cisco 300-615 dumps:
– Actual Cisco 300-615 dumps pdf
Unlock Cisco certification opportunities: dumps with the help of Cisco 300-615
Valid Cisco 300-615 dumps – Cisco Certified Network Professional Q&A:
QUESTION 1 A Fibre Channel interface on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch receives bit errors, and the switch disables the interface. A temporary workaround must be implemented before the root cause is identified. Which action does an engineer take to prevent this issue from reoccurring? A. Verify that the SFPs are supported. B. Change the SFP to operate at 4 Gbps instead of 2 Gbps. C. Run the shutdown and then no shutdown command on the interface. D. Run the switchport ignore bit-errors command on the interface. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 In Cisco UCS Central you have a certificate that has the status set to Not Yet Valid. Which scenario could cause the issue? A. The certificate field is empty. B. The time is incorrectly synchronized. C. The trusted point uses a bundled certificate that has a minimum depth of 10. D. The certificate is issued by a different trusted point. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Cisco Unified Computing System Manager raises a critical error message that indicates that the system has overlapping Ethernet and FCoE VLANs. All of the Ethernet traffic on the overlapping VLANs drops. Which action resolves the issue? A. Modify the VLAN assignment to vNICs. B. Change the PIN groups on the vHBAs. C. Modify the FCoE VLAN. D. Set the FCoE VLAN as the native VLAN on server uplinks. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is performed, guestshell continues to use 2%CPU. Which action resolves the issue? A. Resync the database B. Recreate the guestshell C. Reboot the guestshell D. Reboot the switch Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 A customer has a Cisco UCS Center cluster. The customer configures LDAP as the AAA protocol and enables SSL for LDAP. The LDAP authentication fails. Which issue is the cause of the failure? A. The LDAP client passed an incorrect from the trustpoint. B. The ca certificate is missing from the trustpoints. C. The LDAP server limit that is set by an administrative authority was exceeded. D. The LDAP time limit that is specified by either the client or the server was exceeded. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 An engineer is troubleshooting a packet flow from an access leaf to spine. Which EVPN routes are expected on this connection? A. EVPN Type 1-5 B. EVPN Type 0,9,15 C. EVPN Type 9-15 D. EVPN Type 0,16 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the correct categories on the right.
QUESTION 8 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the Cisco UCS SNMP fault types from the left onto the correct issues on the right.
QUESTION 9 Refer to the exhibit.
Boot from SAN fails. The host fails to detect the LUNs. You must resolve the issue. Drag and drop the WWPNs on the left to the correct zones on the right.
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. A web browser displays a “not secure” warning message when accessing the web interface of Cisco UCS Manager. Which action resolves the issue? A. Load third-party certificate to UCS Manager. B. Use the correct TCP port for HTTPS. C. Use a supported web browser. D. Use a supported version of UCS Manager. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 The Cisco Nexus switch is connected to a peer switch that is not running Cisco NX-OS. The switches are connected using port channel and are experiencing packet loss. Which action should be performed on the Cisco Nexus switch ports to resolve this issue? A. Turn on lacp suspend-individual. B. Turn on lacp graceful-convergence. C. Turn off lacp graceful-convergence. D. Turn off lacp suspend-individual. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. An OSPF adjacency between Router-A and Router-B cannot reach the FULL state. Which action resolves the issue? A. Adjust the MTU on Router-A to 1600. B. Disable the check of the MTU value. C. Set the OSPF media type to point-to-point. D. Adjust the MTU on Router-B to 1604. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Refer to the exhibit. A remote device connected to fc 1/2 fails to come online. Which do you configure to resolve the issue?
A. remote and local ports to be in the correct VSAN B. local switch for NPV C. remote device for NPIV D. port on remote device as an f-port-channel Correct Answer: A
Cisco 300-615 test video
Use the promotional code (Cisco 300-615) dumps before purchasing:
The latest discount code “2020PASS” is provided below.
Pass4itsure brings Cisco 300-615 dumps questions in three formates
To make sure that your Cisco 300-615 exam preparation comes with ease, Pass4itsure brings its Cisco 300-615 dumps product in three ways; Both Cisco 300-615 dumps and PDF products are updated in the same manner.
Pass4itsure 300-615 Exam Questions & Answers
Vendor: Cisco Certifications: Cisco Certified Network Professional Exam Code: 300-615 Exam Name: Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure Exam Updated: Aug 10, 2020 Q&As: 75
100% money-back assure on Cisco 300-615 dumps:
Even if people who take the Cisco 300-615 exam cannot pass the “Cisco Certified Network Professional”, Pass4itsure can ensure that they repay the money lost.
Summarize:
Pmtrainingprep hopes that you will complete the “Cisco Certified Network Professional” in one go, which is why we aim to make your Cisco 300-615 exam preparation more perfect. Shared above: Cisco 300-615 practice questions, 300-615 pdf dumps, 300-615 exam video learning. Latest Pass4itsure discount code “2020PASS”. For more questions, please visit https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-615.html (Q&As: 75.) Study hard and practice a lot.
Where is the best quality Microsoft Azure AZ-220 Exam Question to help me pass the exam? Pass4itsure provides you with questions and tips for Microsoft Azure AZ-220 dumps (https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-220.html), which will ensure your success in the first attempt of the AZ-220 exam.
az-220 dumps | Microsoft exam dumps | az-220 exam questions | az-220 practice test | az-220 questions
Microsoft Azure IoT Developer Specialty AZ-220 Exam Dumps Pdf – Download
QUESTION 1 You have three Azure IoT hubs named Hub1, Hub2, and Hub3, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and an IoT device named Device1. Each IoT hub is deployed to a separate Azure region. Device enrollment uses the Lowest latency allocation policy. The Device Provisioning Service uses the Lowest latency allocation policy. Device1 is auto-provisioned to Hub1 by using the Device Provisioning Service. Device1 regularly moves between regions. You need to ensure that Device1 always connects to the IoT hub that has the lowest latency. What should you do? A. Configure device attestation that uses X.509 certificates. B. Implement device certificate rolling. C. Disenroll and reenroll Device1. D. Configure the re-provisioning policy. Correct Answer: D Automated re-provisioning support. Microsoft added first-class support for device re-provisioning which allows devices to be reassigned to a different IoT solution sometime after the initial solution assignment. Re-provisioning support is available in two options: Factory reset, in which the device twin data for the new IoT hub is populated from the enrollment list instead of the old IoT hub. This is common for factory reset scenarios as well as leased device scenarios. Migration, in which device twin data is moved from the old IoT hub to the new IoT hub. This is common for scenarios in which a device is moving between geographies. Reference: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/new-year-newly-available-iot-hub-device-provisioning-service-features/
QUESTION 2 You have 1,000 devices that connect to an Azure IoT hub. You are performing a scheduled check of deployed IoT devices. You plan to run the following command from the Azure CLI prompt. az iot hub query –hub-name hub1 –query-command “SELECT * FROM devices WHERE connectionState = \\’Disconnected\\'” What does the command return? A. the Device Disconnected events B. the device twins C. the Connections logs D. the device credentials Correct Answer: A The IoT Hub publishes Microsoft.Devices.DeviceDisconnected event type, which is published when a device is disconnected from an IoT hub. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-event-grid#event-types
QUESTION 3 You have an Azure IoT hub. You need to recommend a solution to scale the IoT hub automatically. What should you include in the recommendation? A. Create an SMS alert in IoT Hub for the Total number of messages used metric. B. Create an Azure function that retrieves the quota metrics of the IoT hub. C. Configure autoscaling in Azure Monitor. D. Emit custom metrics from the IoT device code and create an Azure Automation runbook alert. Correct Answer: B Note: IoT Hub is scaled and priced based on an allowed number of messages per day across all devices connected to that IoT Hub. If you exceed the allowed message threshold for your chosen tier and number of units, IoT Hub will begin rejecting new messages. To date, there is no built-in mechanism for automatically scaling an IoT Hub to the next level of capacity if you approach or exceed that threshold. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/samples/azure-samples/iot-hub-dotnet-autoscale/iot-hub-dotnet-autoscale/
QUESTION 4 You have 10,000 IoT devices that connect to an Azure IoT hub. The devices do not support over-the-air (OTA) updates. You need to decommission 1,000 devices. The solution must prevent connections and autoenrollment for the decommissioned devices. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Update the connectionState device twin property on all the devices. B. Blacklist the X.509 root certification authority (CA) certificate for the enrollment group. C. Delete the enrollment entry for the devices. D. Remove the identity certificate from the hardware security module (HSM) of the devices. E. Delete the device identity from the device registry of the IoT hub. Correct Answer: BC B: X.509 certificates are typically arranged in a certificate chain of trust. If a certificate at any stage in a chain becomes compromised, trust is broken. The certificate must be blacklisted to prevent Device Provisioning Service from provisioning devices downstream in any chain that contains that certificate. C: Individual enrollments apply to a single device and can use either X.509 certificates or SAS tokens (in a real or virtual TPM) as the attestation mechanism. (Devices that use SAS tokens as their attestation mechanism can be provisioned only through an individual enrollment.) To blacklist a device that has an individual enrollment, you can either disable or delete its enrollment entry. To blacklist a device that has an individual enrollment, you can either disable or delete its enrollment entry. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-dps/how-to-revoke-device-access-portal
QUESTION 5 You develop a custom Azure IoT Edge module named temperature-module. You publish temperature-module to a private container registry named mycr.azurecr.io You need to build a deployment manifest for the IoT Edge device that will run temperature-module. Which three container images should you define in the manifest? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. mcr.microsoft.com/azureiotedge-simulated-temperature-sensor:1.0 B. mcr.microsoft.com/azureiotedge-agent:1.0 C. mcr.microsoft.com/iotedgedev:2.0 D. mycr.azurecr.io/temperature-module:latest E. mcr.microsoft.com/azureiotedge-hub:1.0 Correct Answer: BDE Each IoT Edge device runs at least two modules: $edgeAgent and $edgeHub, which are part of the IoT Edge runtime. IoT Edge device can run multiple additional modules for any number of processes. Use a deployment manifest to tell your device which modules to install and how to configure them to work together. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-edge/module-composition
QUESTION 6 You have 10 IoT devices that connect to an Azure IoT hub named Hub1. From Azure Cloud Shell, you run az iot hub monitor-events –hub-name Hub1 and receive the following error message: “az iot hub: \\’monitor-events\\’ is not in the \\’az iot hub\\’ command group. See \\’az iot hub –help\\’.” You need to ensure that you can run the command successfully. What should you run first? A. az iot hub monitor-feedback –hub-name Hub1 B. az iot hub generate-sas-token –hub-name Hub1 C. az iot hub configuration list –hub-name Hub1 D. az extension add -name azure-cli-iot-ext Correct Answer: D Execute az extension add –name azure-cli-iot-ext once and try again. In order to read the telemetry from your hub by CLI, you have to enable IoT Extension with the following commands: Add: az extension add –name azure-cli-iot-ext Reference: https://github.com/MicrosoftDocs/azure-docs/issues/20843
QUESTION 7 You have an Azure IoT hub that is being taken from prototype to production. You plan to connect IoT devices to the IoT hub. The devices have hardware security modules (HSMs). You need to use the most secure authentication method between the devices and the IoT hub. Company policy prohibits the use of internally generated certificates. Which authentication method should you use? A. an X.509 self-signed certificate B. a certificate thumbprint C. a symmetric key D. An X.509 certificate signed by a root certification authority (CA). Correct Answer: D Purchase X.509 certificates from a root certificate authority (CA). This method is recommended for production environments. The hardware security module, or HSM, is used for secure, hardware-based storage of device secrets, and is the most secure form of secret storage. Both X.509 certificates and SAS tokens can be stored in the HSM Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-dps/concepts-security
QUESTION 8 You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT Hub named Hub1 and an Azure IoT Edge device named Edge1. Edge1 connects to Hub1. You need to deploy a temperature module to Edge1. What should you do? A. From the Azure portal, navigate to Hub1 and select IoT Edge. Select Edge1, and then select Manage Child Devices. From a Bash prompt, run the following command: az iot edge set-modules -device-id Edge1 -hub-name Hub1 -content C:\deploymentMan1.json B. Create an IoT Edge deployment manifest that specifies the temperature module and the route to $upstream. From a Bush prompt, run the following command: az iot hub monitor-events-device-id Edge1 -hub-name Hub1 C. From the Azure portal, navigate to Hub1 and select IoT Edge. Select Edge1, select Device Twin, and then set the deployment manifest as a desired property. From a Bash prompt, run the following command az iot hub monitoreventsdevice-id Edge1 -hub-name Hub1 D. Create an IoT Edge deployment manifest that specifies the temperature module and the route to $upstream. From a Bush prompt, run the following command: az iot edge set-modules -device-id Edge1 -hub-name Hub1 -content C:\deploymentMan1.json Correct Answer: D You deploy modules to your device by applying the deployment manifest that you configured with the module information. Change directories into the folder where your deployment manifest is saved. If you used one of the VS Code IoT Edge templates, use the deployment.json file in the config folder of your solution directory and not the deployment.template.json file. Use the following command to apply the configuration to an IoT Edge device: az iot edge set-modules –device-id –hub-name –content Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-edge/how-to-deploy-modules-cli
QUESTION 9 DRAG DROP You have an Azure IoT hub. You plan to attach three types of IoT devices as shown in the following table.
You need to select the appropriate communication protocol for each device. What should you select? To answer, drag the appropriate protocols to the correct devices. Each protocol may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10 You have devices that connect to an Azure IoT hub. Each device has a fixed GPS location that includes latitude and longitude. You discover that a device entry in the identity registry of the IoT hub is missing the GPS location. You need to configure the GPS location for the device entry. The solution must prevent the changes from being propagated to the physical device. Solution: You add the desired properties to the device twin. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A Device Twins are used to synchronize state between an IoT solution\\’s cloud service and its devices. Each device\\’s twin exposes a set of desired properties and reported properties. The cloud service populates the desired properties with values it wishes to send to the device. When a device connects it requests and/or subscribes for its desired properties and acts on them. Reference: https://azure.microsoft.com/sv-se/blog/deep-dive-into-azure-iot-hub-notifications-and-device-twin/
QUESTION 11 You are troubleshooting an Azure IoT hub. You discover that some telemetry messages are dropped before they reach downstream processing. You suspect that IoT Hub throttling is the root cause. Which log in the Diagnostics settings of the IoT hub should you use to capture the throttling error events? A. Routes B. DeviceTelemetry C. Connections D. C2DCommands Correct Answer: B The device telemetry category tracks errors that occur at the IoT hub and are related to the telemetry pipeline. This category includes errors that occur when sending telemetry events (such as throttling) and receiving telemetry events (such as unauthorized reader). This category cannot catch errors caused by code running on the device itself. Note: The metric d2c.telemetry.ingress.sendThrottle is the number of throttling errors due to device throughput throttles. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-monitor-resource-health
QUESTION 12 You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and 1,000 connected IoT devices. All the IoT devices are provisioned automatically by using one enrollment group. You need to temporarily disable the IoT devices from the connecting to the IoT hub. Solution: From the Device Provisioning Service, you disable the enrollment group, and you disable device entries in the identity registry of the IoT hub to which the IoT devices are provisioned. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A You may find it necessary to deprovision devices that were previously auto-provisioned through the Device Provisioning Service. In general, deprovisioning a device involves two steps: 1. Disenroll the device from your provisioning service, to prevent future auto-provisioning. Depending on whether you want to revoke access temporarily or permanently, you may want to either disable or delete an enrollment entry. 2. Deregister the device from your IoT Hub, to prevent future communications and data transfer. Again, you can temporarily disable or permanently delete the device\\’s entry in the identity registry for the IoT Hub where it was provisioned. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/iot-dps/how-to-unprovision-devices
You got the free Microsoft Azure AZ-220 dumps question provided by Pass4itsure, the full version of AZ-220 dumps question download https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-220.html Start practicing today from Microsoft.
az-220 dumps | microsoft exam dumps | az-220 exam questions | az-220 practice test | az-220 questions
At pmtrainingprep you can get the latest VMware VCP-CMA 2019 exam questions and answer for free. You can also get a pdf dumps of VMware VCP-CMA 2019 to practice VMware 2V0-31.19, 2V0-31.19 exam questions click https://www.pass4itsure.com/vcp-cma-2019.html The preparation by dumping will help you understand the real exam interface in a large amount, and there will be more possibilities to understand and evaluate your preparation for the question.
QUESTION 1 When importing machines into vRealize Automation, how is the list of machines populated into the CSV file? A. Through an inventory object in vRealize Orchestrator B. Manually by the administrator C. Through data collection on the endpoint D. Directly from vSphere inventory through API Correct Answer: B Reference: https://www.helloitscraig.co.uk/2015/08/migrating-vrealize-automation-machine.html
QUESTION 2 Which option in a composite blueprint\\’s settings allows an architect to modify the CPU and memory limits of provisioned virtual machines? A. Increase number of instances B. Propagate updates to existing deployments C. Make available as a component in the design canvas D. Make provisioned resources scalable Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 A vRealize Automation administrator wants to join provisioned Windows machines to Active Directory organization units based on a users\\’ business group membership. What are two ways an administrator can use to specify the organizational unit? (Choose two.) A. Custom properties B. Active Directory Group Policy C. Active Directory AD: Computer Custom Resource D. Access policies E. vRealize Automation Active Directory policies Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 5 An administrator needs to configure a blueprint to provision OVF machines from an external HTTP server where the OVF resides. Which two steps should the administrator take to provision the OVF machines? (Choose two.) A. Configure the provisioning workflow settings as ImportOvfWorkflow. B. Specify customization specification. C. Specify the URL location of the OVF file present. D. Run data collection. E. Run the OVF directly from vCenter. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 1 What two steps would an administrator take to troubleshoot iOS devices that are not communicating with the console? (Choose two.) A. Confirm that DEP is enabled B. Confirm that the iOS devices have network connection C. Confirm that AWCM is running D. Confirm that the VPP token is valid E. Confirm that the APNs certificate is still valid Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 4 Through which does Workspace One Access collect Workspace ONE UEM entitlements? A. SAML B. API C. PowerShell D. device Services Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 An administrator is implementing Kerberos to support integrated windows authentication and needs to ensure the solution is highly available. What are the required actions to ensure Kerberos is highly available across multiple connectors? (Choose two.) A. Configure the connectors for outbound mode and enable Kerberos in the built-in Idp. B. Change the IdP hostname to the Service Principle name of the KDC. C. Enable redirect on each connector and specify the connector\\’s host name. D. Change the IdP hostname to the fully qualified domain name of the load balancer. E. Enable redirect on each connector and specify the fully qualified domain name of the load balancer. Correct Answer: AC Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Identity-Manager/3.3/com.vmware.vidm-dmzdeployment/GUID-28F5A610-FD08-404D-AC4B-F2F8B0DD60E4.html
Pass4itsure the excellent VMware VCP-CMA 2019 exam dumps will be the most important practice material, and the VMware VCP-CMA 2019 dumps pdf question will ensure 100% pass.
