CompTIA Network+ N10-007 has been updated and reorganized to address the current networking technologies with expanded coverage of several domains by adding:
Critical security concepts to helping networking professionals work with security practitioners
Key cloud computing best practices and typical service models
Coverage of newer hardware and virtualization techniques
Concepts to give individuals the combination of skills to keep the network resilient
CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Online Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 A technician is troubleshooting a problem with a network printer. The technician thinks the network printer is out of paper and ink. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? A. Implement the solution B. Question users C. Test the theory D. Escalate the problem Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 A network administrator is assigned to run and connect a Cat 6e Ethernet cable between two nodes in a datacenter. Which of the following connector types should the network administrator use to terminate this cable? A. DB-9 B. RS-232 C. DB-25 D. RJ-45 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which of the following is used to classify network data for the purpose of providing QoS? A. STP B. VLANs C. SIP D. DSCP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Jeff, a technician, has been asked to add a subnet to the company\\’s LAN. Which of the following interfaces on the router will be modified? A. FastEthernet 0/0 B. AUX 0 C. Console 0 D. Serial 0/0/0 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 A network administrator is setting up a web-based application that needs to be continually accessible to the end users. Which of the following concepts would BEST ensure this requirement? A. High availability B. Snapshots C. NIC teaming D. Cold site Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which of the following protocols are used to connect devices in a secure manner? (Select TWO). A. TELNET B. SSH C. RDP D. HTTP E. DNS F. FTP Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 7 The IT manager at a small firm is in the process of renegotiating an SLA with the organization\\’s ISP. As part of the agreement, the organization will agree to a dynamic bandwidth plan to provide 150Mbps of bandwidth. However, if the ISP determines that a host on the organization\\’s internal network produces malicious traffic, the ISP reserves the right to reduce available bandwidth to 1.5 Mbps. Which of the following policies is being agreed to in the SLA? A. Session hijacking B. Blocking C. Throttling D. Data usage limits E. Bandwidth quotasf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which of the following storage network technologies inherently leverages block-level storage? A. NAS B. SAN C. FCoE D. iSCSI E. FTP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 A junior network technician receives a help desk ticket from an end user who is having trouble accessing a web application that was working the previous day. After talking with the end user and gathering information about issue, which of the following would be the most likely course of action for the technician to perform next? A. Establish a theory of probable cause. B. Escalate the ticket to a senior technician. C. Implement the solution. D. Document the findings and outcomes. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 A company is allowing its employees to use their personal computers, tables, and loT devices while at work. However, there are rules and guidelines to which employees must adhere. Which of the following documents applies to these employees? A. NDA B. SOP C. BYOD D. SLA Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which of the following provides two factor authentication? A. Username+ password B. Smartcard +PIN C. Fingerprint +retina scan D. Key fob +ID card Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 A technician must determine if a web page user\\’s visits are connecting to a suspicious website\\’s IP address in the background. Which of the following tools would provide the information on TCP connections? A. netstat B. tracert C. arp D. ipconfig E. route Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 A network technician is creating a new subnet for 488 host machines. The technician is told to use a class B address scheme when making the subnet and is instructed to leave as much room as possible for additional subnets of the same size. Which of the following subnets would fulfill these requirements? A. 10.5.4.0/22 B. 10.233.2.0/23 C. 172.16.0.0/22 D. 172.18.0.0/23 E. 192.168.25.0/24 Correct Answer: D
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How do I pass the CompTIA Network+ N10-007 exam? You need to be prepared for it! You need the latest and most effective learning materials and proper practices to pass the N10-007 exam. “CompTIA Network+ helps develop a career in IT infrastructure covering troubleshooting, configuring, and managing networks”. Pass4itsure offers you the latest exam materials! You can use the materials to prepare to help you achieve excellent results!
Where do I find a 300-209 PDF or any dump to download? Here you can easily get the latest Cisco CCNP Security 300-209 exam dump and 300-209 pdf! We’ve compiled the latest Cisco 300-209 exam questions and answers to help you save most of your time. Cisco 300-209 exam”Implementation Cisco Secure Mobility Solutions (SIMOS)” https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-209.html (Q&As: 429 ). All exam dump! Guaranteed to pass for the first time!
Cisco CCNP Security 300-209 Online Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 Which option is a possible solution if you cannot access a URL through clientless SSL VPN with Internet Explorer, while other browsers work fine? A. Verify the trusted zone and cookies settings in your browser. B. Make sure that you specified the URL correctly. C. Try the URL from another operating system. D. Move to the IPsec client. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 A private wan connection is suspected of intermittently corrupting data. Which technology can a network administrator use to detect and drop the altered data traffic? A. AES-128 B. RSA Certificates C. SHA2-HMAC D. 3DES E. Diffie-Helman Key Generation Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibit. Which exchange does this debug output represent?
A. IKE Phase 1 B. IKE Phase 2 C. symmetric key exchange D. certificate exchange Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which Cisco ASA configuration is used to configure the TCP intercept feature? A. a TCP map B. an access list C. the established command D. the set connection command with the embryonic-conn-max option E. a type inspect policy map Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 An engineer is configuring a site-to-site VPN tunnel. Which two IKEv1 parameters must match on both peers? (Choose two.) A. encryption algorithm B. access lists C. encryption domains D. QoS E. hashing method Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. You are implementing DMVPN Phase 3 in an existing network that uses DMVPN Phase1. You configure NHRP, but the creation of the spoke-to-spoke tunnel fails. Which action do you take to resolve the issue? A. Remove the multicast flag from the NHRP configuration. B. Configure the tunnel of the hub by using point-to-point tunnel mode. C. Configure the tunnel of the spoke by using mGRE tunnel mode. D. Remove NHRP redirects from the hub configuration. Correct Answer: C Reference: http://www.patrickdenis.biz/blog/dmvpn-phase-1-2-and-3/
QUESTION 7 Which protocol must be enabled on the inside interface to use cluster encryption in SSL VPN load balancing? A. TLS B. DTLS C. IKEv2 D. ISAKMP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Refer to the Exhibit. Which statement is accurate based on this configuration?
A. Spoke 1 fails the authentication because the authentication methods are incorrect. B. Spoke 2 passes the authentication to the hub and successfully proceeds to phase 2. C. Spoke 1 passes the authentication to the hub and successfully proceeds to phase 2. D. Spoke 2 fails the authentication because the remote authentication method is incorrect. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 A customer requires site-to-site VPNs to connect to third party business partners and has purchased two ASAs. The customer requests an active/active configuration. Winch mode is needed to support and active/active solution? A. single context B. NAT context C. PAT context D. multiple context Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Which two RADIUS attributes are needed for a VRF-aware FlexVPN hub? (Choose two.) A. ip:interface-config=ip unnumbered loobackn B. ip:interface-config=ip vrf forwarding ivrf C. ip:interface-config=ip src route D. ip:interface-config=ip next hop E. ip:interface-config=ip neighbor 0.0.0.0 Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11 An engineer wants to ensure that Diffie-Helman keys are re-generated upon a pahse-2 rekey. What option can be configured to allow this? A. Aggressive mode B. Dead-peer detection C. Main mode D. Perfect-forward secrecy Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Which command identifies an AnyConnect profile that was uploaded to the router flash? A. crypto vpn anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml B. svc import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml C. anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml D. webvpn import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml Correct Answer: A
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Candidates for this exam are Azure Administrators who manage cloud services that span storage, security, networking, and compute cloud capabilities. Candidates have a deep understanding of each service across the full IT lifecycle and take requests for infrastructure services, applications, and environments. They make recommendations on services to use for optimal performance and scale, as well as provision, size, monitor, and adjust resources as appropriate. Candidates for this exam should have proficiency in using PowerShell, the Command Line Interface, Azure Portal, ARM templates, operating systems, virtualization, cloud infrastructure, storage structures, and networking. Related exams: Microsoft Azure AZ-103
pass4itsure AZ-100 Skills measured
Manage Azure subscriptions and resources (15-20%)
Implement and manage storage (20-25%)
Deploy and manage virtual machines (VMs) (20-25%)
Configure and manage virtual networks (20-25%)
Manage identities (15-20%)
Latest effective Microsoft Azure AZ-100 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 You plan to automate the deployment of a virtual machine scale set that uses the Windows Server 2016 Datacenter image. You need to ensure that when the scale set virtual machines are provisioned, they have web server components installed. Which of the following two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Create an Azure policy. B. Upload a configuration script. C. Create a new virtual machine scale set in the Azure portal. D. Modify the extension profile section of the Azure Resource Manager template. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 2 You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), tenant. You have an existing Azure AD conditional access policy named Policy1. Policy1 enforces the use of Azure AD-joined devices when members of the Global Administrators group authenticate to Azure AD from untrusted locations. You need to ensure that members of the Global Administrators group will also be forced to use multi-factor authentication when authenticating from untrusted locations. What should you do? A. From the Azure portal, modify session control of Policy1 B. From the multi-factor authentication page, modify the service settings C. From the multi-factor authentication page, modify the user settings D. From the Azure portal, modify grant control of Policy1 Correct Answer: D There are two types of controls: Grant controls -To gate access Session controls -To restrict access to a session Grant controls oversee whether a user can complete authentication and reach the resource that they\\’re attempting to sign-in to. If you have multiple controls selected, you can configure whether all of them are required when your policy is processed. The current implementation of Azure Active Directory enables you to set the following grant control requirements:
QUESTION 3 You need to move the blueprint files to Azure. What should you do? A. Generate a shared access signature (SAS). Map a drive, and then copy the files by using File Explorer. B. Use the Azure Import/Export service. C. Generate an access key. Map a drive, and then copy the files by using File Explorer. D. Use Azure Storage Explorer to copy the files. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 You have an Azure subscription that contains the resources in the following table.
Subnet1 is associated with VNet1. NIC1 attaches VM1 to Subnet1. You need to apply ASG1 to VM1. What should you do? A. Modify the properties of NSG1. B. Modify the properties of ASG1. C. Associate NIC1 to ASG1. Correct Answer: B When you deploy VMs, make them members of the appropriate ASGs. You associate the ASG with a subnet. References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/applicationsecuritygroups/
QUESTION 5 HOTSPOT You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. You plan to deploy an Ubuntu Server virtual machine named VM1 to Subscription1. You need to perform a custom deployment of the virtual machine. A specific trusted root certification authority (CA) must be added during the deployment. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Explanation: Box 1: Unattend.xml In preparation to deploy shielded VMs, you may need to create an operating system specialization answer file. On Windows, this is commonly known as the “unattend.xml” file. The New-ShieldingDataAnswerFile Windows PowerShell function helps you do this. Starting with Windows Server version 1709, you can run certain Linux guest OSes in shielded VMs. If you are using the System Center Virtual Machine Manager Linux agent to specialize those VMs, the New- ShieldingDataAnswerFile cmdlet can create compatible answer files for it. Box 2: The Azure Portal You can use the Azure portal to deploy a Linux virtual machine (VM) in Azure that runs Ubuntu. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/linux/quick-create-portal
QUESTION 6 DRAG DROP You have two Azure virtual machines named VM1 and VM2. VM1 has a single data disk named Disk1. You need to attach Disk1 to VM2. The solution must minimize downtime for both virtual machines. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation: Step 1: Stop VM1. Step 2: Detach Disk1 from VM1. Step 3: Start VM1. Detach a data disk using the portal 1. In the left menu, select Virtual Machines. 2. Select the virtual machine that has the data disk you want to detach and click Stop to deallocate the VM. 3. In the virtual machine pane, select Disks. 4. At the top of the Disks pane, select Edit. 5. In the Disks pane, to the far right of the data disk that you would like to detach, click the Detach button image detach button. 6. After the disk has been removed, click Save on the top of the pane. 7. In the virtual machine pane, click Overview and then click the Start button at the top of the pane to restart the VM. 8. The disk stays in storage but is no longer attached to a virtual machine. Step 4: Attach Disk1 to VM2 Attach an existing disk Follow these steps to reattach an existing available data disk to a running VM. 1. Select a running VM for which you want to reattach a data disk. 2. From the menu on the left, select Disks. 3. Select Attach existing to attach an available data disk to the VM. 4. From the Attach existing disk pane, select OK. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/detach-disk https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/lab-services/devtest-lab-attach-detach-data-disk
QUESTION 7 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a computer named Computer1 that has a point-to-site VPN connection to an Azure virtual network named VNet1. The point-to-site connection uses a self-signed certificate. From Azure, you download and install the VPN client configuration package on a computer named Computer2. You need to ensure that you can establish a point-to-site VPN connection to VNet1 from Computer2. Solution: You modify the Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) authentication policies. Does this meet this goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 You have an on-premises network that contains a Hyper-V host named Host1. Host1 runs Windows Server 2016 and hosts 10 virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016. You plan to replicate the virtual machines to Azure by using Azure Site Recovery. You create a Recovery Services vault named ASR1 and Hyper-V site named Site1. You need to add Host1 to ASR1. What should you do? A. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider. Download the vault registration key. Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server. B. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider. Download the storage account key. Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines. C. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider. Download the vault registration key. Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines. D. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider. Download the storage account key. Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server. Correct Answer: A
Download the Vault registration key. You need this when you install the Provider. The key is valid for five days after you generate it. Install the Provider on each VMM server. You don\\’t need to explicitly install anything on Hyper-V hosts. Incorrect Answers: B, D: Use the Vault Registration Key, not the storage account key. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/migrate-tutorial-on-premises-azure
QUESTION 9 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You manage a virtual network named VNet1 that is hosted in the West US Azure region. VNet1 hosts two virtual machines named VM1 and VM2 that run Windows Server. You need to inspect all the network traffic from VM1 to VM2 for a period of three hours. Solution: From Performance Monitor, you create a Data Collector Set (DCS). Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B You should use Azure Network Watcher. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/network-watcher/network-watcher-monitoring-overview
QUESTION 10 You have two Azure virtual machines named VM1 and VM2. You have two Recovery Services vaults named RSV1 and RSV2. VM2 is protected by RSV1. You need to use RSV2 to protect VM2. What should you do first? A. From the RSV1 blade, click Backup items and stop the VM2 backup. B. From the RSV1 blade, click Backup Jobs and export the VM2 job. C. From the RSV2 blade, click Backup. From the Backup blade, select the backup for the virtual machine, and then click Backup. D. From the VM2 blade, click Disaster recovery, click Replication settings, and then select RSV2 as the Recovery Services vault. Correct Answer: D References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/backup/backup-azure-vms-first-look-arm
QUESTION 11 DRAG DROP You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that has the initial domain name. You have a domain name of contoso.com registered at a third-party registrar. You need to ensure that you can create Azure AD users that have names containing a suffix of @contoso.com. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
QUESTION 12 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains a resource group named RG1. RG1 contains resources that were deployed by using templates. You need to view the date and time when the resources were created in RG1. Solution: From the Subscriptions blade, you select the subscription, and then click Programmatic deployment. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 SIMULATION Overview The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste, ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design. Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task. Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you are able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided. Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to the lab. To start the lab You may start the lab by clicking the Next button. You plan to prevent users from accidentally deleting blob data from Azure. You need to ensure that administrators can recover any blob data that is deleted accidentally from the storagelod8095859 storage account for 14 days after the deletion occurred. What should you do from the Azure portal? Correct Answer: See below.
Task A: Create a Recovery Services vault (if a vault already exists skip this task, go to Task B below) A1. From Azure Portal, On the Hub menu, click All services and in the list of resources, type Recovery Services and click Recovery Services vaults. If there are recovery services vaults in the subscription, the vaults are listed. A2. On the Recovery Services vaults menu, click Add.
Task B. Create a backup goal B1. On the Recovery Services vault blade (for the vault you just created), in the Getting Started section, click Backup, then on the Getting Started with Backup blade, select Backup goal. A3. The Recovery Services vault blade opens, prompting you to provide a Name, Subscription, Resource group, and Location
The Backup Goal blade opens. If the Recovery Services vault has been previously configured, then the Backup Goal blades open when you click Backup on the Recovery Services vault blade. B2. From the Where is your workload running? drop-down menu, select Azure.
B3. From the What do you want to backup? menu, select Blob Storage and click OK. B4. Finish the Wizard. Task C. create a backup schedule C1. Open the Microsoft Azure Backup agent. You can find it by searching your machine for Microsoft Azure Backup.
C2. In the Backup agent\\’s Actions pane, click Schedule Backup to launch the Schedule Backup Wizard.
C3. On the Getting started page of the Schedule Backup Wizard, click Next. C4. On the Select Items to Backup page, click Add Items. The Select Items dialog opens. C5. Select Blob Storage you want to protect, and then click OK. C6.In the Select Items to Backup page, click Next. On the Specify Backup Schedule page, specify Schedule a backup every day, and click Next.
C7. On the Select Retention Policy page, set it to 14 days, and click Next.
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Candidates for this exam are OEM, ODM, or IDH Windows image builders who are familiar with using the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) to manage and deploy Windows 10. These candidates install or assemble hardware with genuine preinstalled Windows 10. These candidates also create complete images for deployment to customer devices such as desktops, laptops, and tablets.
Candidates for this exam should have at least one year of experience managing day-to-day issues involving Windows deployment. Candidates
should be familiar with the tools designed to deploy optimized hardware solutions for Microsoft platforms.
Microsoft 70-735 Skills measured
Prepare the Imaging Environment (20-25%)
Service the Offline Image (40-45%)
Service the Online Image (35-40%)
Latest effective Microsoft 70-735 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are building a new image of Windows 10 that contains a push-button reset solution. You need to test whether push-button reset works as expected. Solution: From Windows 10, you press and hold the SHIFT key, and then you restart the computer. After the computer restarts, you click Troubleshoot, and then you click Reset this PC. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A References: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/12415/windows-10-recovery-options https://docs.microsoft.com/en- us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/push-button-reset-overview
QUESTION 2 You have a computer that runs Windows 10. The computer starts in UEFI mode and has a 64-bit processor. You insert a USB key in the computer. The USB key has a drive letter of F. You need to ensure that you can start the computer by using Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) from the USB key. Which two commands should you run? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. makewinpemedia.cmd /UFD C:\WinPe F: B. makewinpemedia.cmd /ISO C:\WinPe F: C. copype.cmd amd64 C:\WinPe D. dism.exe /Export-Image /SourceImageFile:C:\WinPE\boot.wim/SourceIndex:1/DestinationImageFile:F:\boot.wim E. copype.cmd x86 C:\WinPe Correct Answer: AE References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/winpe-create-usb-bootable-drive
QUESTION 3 For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 4 You have a reference image of the 64-bit version of Windows 10. The reference image contains an application named App1. You need to ensure that App1 is pinned to the Start menu. Which tool or tools should you use to apply the custom Start layout to the image? A. image.exe and Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) B. dism.exe and File Explorer C. Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT) D. Windows System Image Manager (Windows SIM) Correct Answer: D References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/customize-the-start-screen
QUESTION 5 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are configuring a reference computer for a new UEFI-based deployment image of the 64-bit version of Windows 10. The reference computer has two physical hard disk drives. You need to configure a partition on Disk 0 to support a recovery partition. Solution: You create a primary partition of 250 MB that uses the NTFS file system. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B This partition must be at least 300 MB References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/configure-uefigpt-based-hard- drive-partitions
QUESTION 6 You plan to deploy an image of Windows 10 to several computers by using an answer file. You need to identify which configuration pass you must use to configure each of the following settings: Manufacturer in the Microsoft-Windows-Shell-Setup component. UILanguage in the Microsoft-Windows-International-Core component Which configuration pass should you use for each setting? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 You have an image of Windows 10. You obtain a feature update for Windows 10. You need to include the feature update in the image. The solution must minimize the size of the image. What should you do? A. Mount the image. Run dism.exe /Add-Package, and then run dism.exe /Optimize-Image. Unmount the image. B. Deploy the image to a computer. Install the feature update. Optimize the drive, and then capture the image. C. Download the new installation media for Windows 10. Install Windows 10 on a computer, and then capture the image. D. Mount the image. Run dism.exe /Add-Package, and then run dism.exe /Cleanup-Wim. Unmount the image. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is located on a network that is disconnected from the Internet. You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. You download the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) setup on Computer1. You need to create an installation source on a USB drive that can be used to install Windows ADK on Server1. Which installation option should you use when you run the Windows ADK setup on Computer1? A. /list B. /layout C. /ceip D. /features E. /installpath Correct Answer: B References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-gb/library/dn621908.aspx
QUESTION 9 You use an answer file to automate the installation of Windows 10. You need to add your company\\’s support information to computers that you deploy. Which component should you add to the answer file? A. Microsoft-Windows-Setup B. Microsoft-Windows-PnpCustomizationsNonWinPE C. Microsoft-Windows-Shell-Setup D. Microsoft-Windows-Deployment Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/customize/desktop/unattend/microsoft-windows-shell- setup-oeminformation
QUESTION 10 You have a reference computer that runs Windows 10. The computer contains a provisioning package named Package1.ppkg. Package1.ppkg is located in C:\Packages\. You plan to create an image of the reference computer. You run sysprep.exe on the computer, and then you start the computer by using Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE). You need to ensure that the image uses the least amount of disk space possible. How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are building a new image of Windows 10 that contains a push-button reset solution. You need to test whether push-button reset works as expected. Solution: From Windows 10, you open the Settings app, you click Update and security, and then you click Recovery. From Reset this PC, you click Get Started. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A References: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/12415/windows-10-recovery-options https://docs.microsoft.com/en- us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/push-button-reset-overview
QUESTION 12 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 has the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) installed. You are building a new image of Windows 10. You need to specify how the hard disk will be partitioned during the Windows 10 installation. What should you do? A. Mount the Install.wim file. B. Mount the Boot.wim file. C. Modify the Winpeshl.ini file. D. Create an answer file. E. Modify the Windows.ini file. F. Create a provisioning package. G. Load a catalog file (.clg). H. Create a cabinet file (.cab). Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have an image of Windows 10 for a new desktop computer model. You plan to deploy the computer to two regions. You need to add a language interface pack to the image. Which parameter should you specify when you run dism.exe? A. /Add-Capability B. /Add-Driver C. /Add-Package D. /Add-ProvisionedAppxPackage E. /Apply-CustomDataImage F. /Apply-Image G. /Apply-Unattend H. /Export-Image Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/add-and-remove-language- packs-offline-using-dism
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This exam is intended only for candidates who have taken Exam 70-345: Designing and Deploying Microsoft Exchange Server 2016. If you have not taken Exam 345, you will not earn a certification by taking this exam.
Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions, mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments.
Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.
Messaging Administrators collaborate with the Security Administrator and Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid topology that meets the business needs of a modern organization.
The Messaging Administrator should have a working knowledge of authentication types, licensing, and integration with M365 applications.
Plan and implement a hybrid configuration and migration (20-25%)
Secure the messaging environment (35-40%)
Latest effective Microsoft MS-202 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 You have a hybrid deployment of Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 and Microsoft Office 365. In Exchange Online, you create an archive mailbox for each user. Users who have a mailbox in the on-premises Exchange organization report that they cannot access their archive mailbox. You verify that users who have a mailbox in Office 365 can access their archive mailbox successfully. You need to resolve the issue. What should you modify? A. the sharing policy B. the mailbox permissions C. the organization relationship D. the device tenant policy Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/sharing-and-collaboration/set- organizationrelationship?view=exchange-ps
QUESTION 2 You need to recommend a deployment plan that meets the technical requirements for the mailbox databases. What should you include in the recommendation? A. Deploy 10 Exchange servers to the main office and one Exchange server to each branch office. Create two mailbox databases on each server. B. Deploy one Exchange server to each office. Create two mailbox databases on each server. Create copies of the databases on another server. C. Deploy 11 Exchange servers to the main office and one Exchange server to each branch office. Create one mailbox database on each server. D. Deploy one Exchange server to the main office and two Exchange servers to each branch office. Create one mailbox database on each server. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that has the topology shown in the following exhibit.
The organization contains the servers shown in the following table.
The organization contains the mailboxes shown in the following table.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Hot Area:
QUESTION 4 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 organization that has the following configurations: The forest functional level of Active Directory is Windows Server 2008 R2 The domain controllers in Active Directory Windows Server 2012 R2. The Exchange servers run Windows Server 2012 Datacenter You plan to upgrade the organization to Exchange Server 2019. You need to ensure that the organization meets the minimum supported requirements for the upgrade. What should you do? A. Raise the forest functional level to Windows Server 2012 R2 B. Upgrade the domain controllers to Windows Server 2016 C. Upgrade the Exchange servers to Windows Server 2016 D. Upgrade the Exchange servers to Windows Server 2019 Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/plan-and-deploy/system-requirements?view=exchserver-2019
QUESTION 5 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment that contains the users shown in the following table.
You need to provide each user with an archive mailbox that is stored in Exchange Online. Which admin center should you use to perform the configuration for each user? To answer, drag the appropriate admin centers to the correct users. Each admin center may be used once, or not at all. You may to drag the split bar between the panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6 You need to implement a solution that meets the technical requirements for the retention of junk email, sent items, and deleted items. What is the minimum number of retention policies and retention tags you should use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You are auditing the litigation hold on the mailboxes of the company\\’s research and development department. You discover that the mailbox of a user named User1 has a Litigation Hold enabled. You need to discover who placed the Litigation hold on the mailbox of User1, and when the Litigation Hold was enabled. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. From the Exchange admin center, run an In-place eDiscovery and Hold report. B. From the Exchange admin center, run a per-mailbox Litigation Hold report. C. From PowerShell, run the Get-MailboxStatistics cmdlet. D. From PowerShell, run the Get-Mailbox cmdlet. Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Fabrikam.com. You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains two Mailbox servers. The servers are members of a database availability group (DAG). You plan to implement an Exchange hybrid deployment. You are evaluating the use of the Exchange Modern Hybrid connection option during the hybrid deployment. What are two benefits of using Exchange Modern Hybrid instead of Exchange Classic Hybrid? Each correct answer presents part of solutions. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. uses Organization Configuration Transfer to configure Exchange Online B. allows federated sharing between the on-premises organization and Exchange Online C. allows the use of Microsoft Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for on-premises users D. eliminates the need to purchase publicly trusted certificates for communication between the on-premises organization and Exchange Online E. preserves mailbox quotas when mailboxes are moved between the on-premises organization and Exchange Online Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9 You need to recommend a solution to meet the technical requirements for the managers. What should you recommend creating for the mailboxes of the managers? A. a transport agent B. a separate Exchange server C. a separate mailbox database D. an audit policy Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default domain named contoso.com. Users report that email messages from a domain named fabrikam.com are identified as spam even though the messages are legitimate. You need to prevent messages from fabrikam.com from being identified as spam. What should you do? A. Edit the default mail flow rule to bypass the spam filter. B. Create a new remote domain. C. Edit a spam filter policy. D. Create a new malware filter policy. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than once correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a Microsoft Exchange server 2019 organization. You discover that users rarely delete items from their Sent Items folder and their Deleted Items folder. You need to recommend a solution to automatically reduce the size of the primary mailbox of each user. Solution: You recommend configuring a retention policy that contains two default policy tags. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B This would work and it needs no user intervention but it would apply to all folders. Furthermore, you only need one default tag, not two.
QUESTION 13 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains 5,000 mailboxes. You purchase a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription and create a hybrid deployment. You configure all MX records to point to Exchange Online. You purchase 2,000 Microsoft 365 E5 licenses, and you migrate 2,000 mailboxes to Exchange Online. You need to identify which additional licenses must be purchased. The solution must minimize costs. Which licenses should you identify? A. an Exchange Online Protection (EOP) license for each on-premises mailbox B. Microsoft Office 365 Enterprise E1 licenses for the on-premises users C. Enterprise Mobility + Security E5 licenses for the Exchange Online users D. Microsoft Azure Active Directory Premium P2 licenses for all users Correct Answer: B References: https://products.office.com/en-gb/business/compare-more-office-365-for-business-plans
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The Cisco Certified Technician (CCT) for Data Center validates a technician’s competency in the following areas
Basic Cisco NX-OS configuration
Cisco Data Center products and hardware components with an emphasis on the Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS).
The curriculum covers remedial services (HW break fix) on Cisco Data Center products, including hardware replacement,software and configuration backup and restore, check safety and environmental requirement, recognize connection type and cable requirement, and perform basic physical layer troubleshooting. The Cisco Certified Technician (CCT) should be competent in the following areas; basic Cisco NX-OS configuration, Cisco Data Center products and hardware components.
The Cisco Certified Technician should be able to perform remedial services (HW break fix) on Cisco Data Center products,including software and configuration backup and restore, check safety and environmental requirement, recognize connection type and cable requirement, and perform basic physical layer troubleshooting.
Latest effective Cisco 010-151 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Which three components are hot swappable in a Cisco UCS Blade Server and Chassis? (Choose three.) A. Fabric Extender B. Power supply C. Heat sink D. SAS Hard Drive E. 2x8GB Kit DIMMs F. Mezzanine card Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit.
Which item does F represent? A. HDD 1 B. TFP Module C. SuperCap Module D. CPU 2 E. CMOS Battery Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibit.What is the name of this rack-mount server? A. Cisco UCS C220 Rack-Mount Server B. Cisco UCS C240 Rack-Mount Server C. Cisco UCS C420 Rack-Mount Server D. Cisco UCS C460 Rack-Mount Server Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which two commands display the version of Cisco NX-OS code that the device is currently running on? (Choose two.) A. show version B. show module C. show interface D. show boot E. show license Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit.Which statement correctly identifies the front panel LEDs on the Cisco UCS C220 Server? A. A is power button and power status LED; B is identification button and LED; C is system status LED; D is network link activity LED. B. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification button and LED. C. A is system status LED; B is network link activity LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification button and LED. D. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is identification button and LED; D is power button and power status LED. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector? A. dual-mode B. single-mode C. straight-mode D. multi-mode E. subscriber-mode Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Which method does FCIP use to enable connectivity of geographically distributed Fibre Channel SANs over IP? A. routing B. tunneling C. handshaking D. transporting Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 To do a password recovery on a Cisco NX-OS Switch, which option shows the correct syntax to display the bootflash contents at the switch(boot)#? A. display bootflash: B. show bootflash: C. dir bootflash: D. find bootflash: Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Which two statements about DIMM replacement in Cisco UCS Servers are true? (Choose two.) A. In blade servers, DIMMs can be installed in either 1, 2, 4, or 8 DIMMs per channel. B. Rack-mount and blade servers have memory fault LEDs that indicate which DIMM requires attention. C. In servers that require pairs of DIMMs, the pairs must be identical (manufacturer, size, part #, and so on). D. If the memory in a server is not fully populated, you can install DIMMs in any open slot. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10 Which two statements about the Cisco Nexus 5596UP switch are true? (Choose two.) A. Its power supplies and fan trays are hot-swappable. B. It supports unified ports. C. It is offered in a one-rack-unit form factor. D. It has one expansion slot. E. It supports up to 96 10G BASE-T ports. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11 Which two Cisco Nexus switches provide the foundation of the Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 7718 switch B. Cisco Nexus 9508 switch C. Cisco Nexus 7710 switch D. Cisco Nexus 93128TX switch E. Cisco Nexus 6004 switch Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 12 Which three firmware components does the Host Upgrade Utility upgrade? (Choose three.) A. Fabric Interconnect firmware B. LAN on Motherboard C. Cisco UCS Manager D. CIMC E. System BIOS Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 13 Refer to the exhibit.Which option should you select to get the output of the show tech-support detail command for the Cisco UCS B-Series blade? A. A – ucsm B. B – chassis C. C – fabric-extender D. D – rack-server Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14 Refer to the exhibit.Which three options are features of the Cisco UCS 6248UP Fabric Interconnect front panel? (Choose three.) A. Console port B. FCoE port C. 10 Gb/s port D. Fan module E. USB port Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 15 Which command can be used to exit to EXEC mode from this current mode? switch(config-if) # A. Ctrl-C B. Ctrl-L C. quit D. exit E. end Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 16 Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch? A. first-generation supervisor module B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2) C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E) D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E) Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17 What is the wire transmission speed for 100GBASE-ER4 Ethernet? A. 100 Mb/s B. 1 Gb/s C. 10 Gb/s D. 100 Gb/s Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18 On the Sensors page from the CIMC view, which four tabs are displayed to view further information? (Choose four.) A. Power Supply B. Fan C. Memory D. CPU E. LEDs F. Temperature Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 19 What is the correct path to verify the Overall Status of Chassis 1 | Server 3? A. Equipment Tab > Chassis > Chassis 1 > Servers > Server 3 Status tab B. Equipment Tab > Chassis > Chassis 1 > Servers > Server 3 General tab C. Equipment Tab > Chassis > Chassis 1 > Servers > Server 3 FSM tab D. Servers Tab > Chassis > Server 3 General tab E. Status Tab > Chassis > Chassis 1 > Servers > Server 3 F. Admin Tab > Chassis > Chassis 1 > Servers > Server 3 General tab Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20 Which two statements about the Ethernet media are true? (Choose two.) A. A twisted-pair cable system has each pair of wires twisted together to reduce electromagnetic interference. B. Compared to multimode fiber, the single-mode fiber is designed for shorter distances with higher cost. C. 40 Gigabit Ethernet twinax cables deploy Enhanced Quad Small Form Factor Pluggable (QSFP+) connectors. D. The twinax cables can be found in either a shielded twisted-pair or an unshielded twisted-pair variation. Correct Answer: AC
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Latest effective Cisco 700-265 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Which component of Cisco Stealthwatch uses sophisticated security analytics to accelerate threat response time? A. network control B. investigation C. threat protection D. anomaly detection E. granular visibility Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which three options are Cisco Advanced Threat Solutions? (Choose three.) A. Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System B. Stealthwatch C. remote access VPN D. identity and access control E. web security F. cognitive Threat analytics Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 3 Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence? A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services C. Cisco Identity Services Engine D. Cisco Security Manager E. Cisco TrustSec Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which two attack vectors are protected by cloud app security? (Choose two.) A. mobile B. cloud apps C. voicemail D. email E. campus and branch Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5 Which two Cisco business values demonstrate features of end-to-end protection and protection across the attack continuum? (Choose two.) A. completeness B. cost effectiveness C. protection D. control E. flexibility Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6 How does Cisco TrustSec help secure sensitive data and regulating network access? A. email security B. leverage file reputation C. ensure compliance D. provide customer choice E. traffic tagging Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 In addition to protection, control, and flexibility, which two business values are included in Cisco value propositions? (Choose two.) A. Support B. Completeness C. Cost effectiveness D. Scalability E. Integration Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8 Which ISR appliance di you use if your customer is a small business that requires integrated switching and routing and WAN redundancy? A. FirePower 8000 secirs B. Cisco 4000 Series ISR C. Cisco 800 Series ISR D. FirePower 7000 Series E. FirePower 2100 Series Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Which trait of Cisco security solutions addresses the worry that a customer\\’s security provider will leave the market or reach end-of-life? A. familiarity B. functionality C. robustness D. cost E. stability Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 10 Which Cisco business values are demonstrated by increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality, and increased visibility? A. protection B. completeness C. cost effectiveness D. control E. flexibility Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Which two aspects of Cisco solutions save customers money? (Choose two.) A. 100 percent effectiveness B. Faster integration C. Fewer resources to manage D. Lowest-cost solutions E. Incentives programs F. Complete replacement of current infrastructure Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 12 Which NGIPS appliance do you use if you customer is at the enterprise level and requires modular architecture that is scalable? A. FirePOWER 2100 Series B. ASA 7000 Series C. FirePOWER 8000 Series D. Cisco 4000 Series ISR E. Cisco 800 Series ISR Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Which option describes how partners can help customers using their unique relationship with Cisco award-winning resources and support? A. Be the first to receive new innovations B. Take advantage of incentives programs C. Access 24-hour support around the word D. Earn higher margins on each deal sold Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14 Which phase of the software lifecycle deals with anticipating customer needs and bundling and adding products accordingly? A. plan and supply B. upsell and cross sell C. renew D. land and expand E. know and grow Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15 Which three options are products and benefits of the mobile threat-centric solution? (choose three) A. AnyConect B. URL filter C. Enhanced access and usage control with ISE D. Enforced device security policies with Meraki E. Secure off-network connection with Stealthwatch F. CRD and network Analytics Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 16 How does the Cisco policy and access solution handle a changing user base in growing company? A. Cisco delivers a flexible and scalable security solution framework that can adapt to changing customer needs. B. Cisco architecture offers the lowest TCO by providing product that integrate, which lowers the cost of IT setup, management, and maintenance. C. Cisco Talos Security Intelligence and Research Group integrates into all security solutions, which provides advanced protection against new threats. D. Cisco provides you the ability to monitor and restrict application usage. As applications become more complex, Cisco provides the flexibility to control all or subsets of the application. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17 Which three options are a result of utilizing a fragmented security model? (Choose three.) A. additional fragmentation that reduces the risk from malicious files B. fragmented security that provides disbursed protection C. decreased network accessibility through multiple applications D. patchworked applications that continually increase in complexity E. individual components pieced together that are incompatible F. multiple points of access that can be exploited by cyber criminals Correct Answer: AEF
QUESTION 18 Which two options are products and benefit of the campus and branch threat-centric solutions? (choose two) A. Trojan and malware protection with NGIPS B. Enhanced zero-day and DDoS attacks through NGFW C. Cloud security policy management through CDO D. Fuzzy fingerprint E. Trusted security Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 19 Which issue do customers with vulnerable cloud issues deal with (choose three) A. invisible employee apps usage B. appropriate level of access C. solution that does not extend to cloud D. lack of protection from cloud apps E. complex mobile management F. expensive malware attacks Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 20 Which three options are Cisco industry differentiators? (choose three) A. uncontested threat blocking B. unparalleled commitment to security C. unmatched support and services D. lowest price E. largest selection of security solutions F. best-in-class technologies Correct Answer: BCF
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QUESTION 1
You are the administrator of a Microsoft Dynamics 365 instance.
Staff want to take advantage of Microsoft Exchange inbox folders in Microsoft Outlook to sort and track the email messages they have with customers.
Which action must you take to fulfill their request?
A. Use smart matching.
B. Use folder-level tracking.
C. Use tracking tokens.
D. Use correlation to track email conversations.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Your are implementing Microsoft Dynamics 365 in an organization where many users have former versions of Microsoft Outlook and Windows.
What is the earliest supported scenario for Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook?
A. Windows 8 and Microsoft Office 2010
B. Windows 7 SP1 and Microsoft Office 2010
C. Windows 8.1 and Microsoft Office 2013
D. Windows 10 and Microsoft Office 2016
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
You are a system administrator at Contoso, Inc.
You need to ensure that administrative notifications for your production instance are also sent to your external partner.
What should you do?
A. Add the external partner to the deployment administrators group.
B. Create an Office 365 group and forward notifications to the group.
C. Create a security group and forward notifications to the group.
D. Add the external partner as an additional recipient on the production instance.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
You are a remote sales person using the Microsoft Dynamics 365 app on your tablet.
You need to create new records while in an area with no Internet access.
Which two statements are true about creating records offline? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Recently viewed records cached for offline access can be edited.
B. New records can be edited while they are drafts.
C. New records can be created as drafts while offline.
D. New records can be linked to each other while they are drafts.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 5
You are a system administrator, and your company recently began using Microsoft Dynamics 365. You need to perform a full copy from a training sandbox instance to one of your production instances. What should you do?
A. Switch the production instance to a sandbox, and perform a full copy from training.
B. Place the production instance in Administration mode, and perform a full copy from training.
C. Perform a full copy from the training instance to the production instance.
D. Switch the training instance to production, and perform a full copy.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
You are the network administrator for your company.
Management wants to deploy Microsoft Dynamics 365 for the sales division. The company has more than 2 million records, currently stored on-premises, that need to be migrated to Microsoft Dynamics 365. The technology director wants you
to utilize the Data Loader service for the migration process for the fastest possible migration.
What is a prerequisite for running the Data Loader service in this instance?
A. The data must be cleansed before using the Import Data Wizard to migrate it to the cloud.
B. Third-party tools must be installed in order to migrate the data with the Data Loader service.
C. The data set must reside in Azure on the same data center that hosts the company’s Microsoft Dynamics 365 instance.
D. The data must first be converted to CSV files before uploading it with the Import Data Wizard.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
You are the system administrator for a company that is deploying Microsoft Dynamics 365 in multiple regions.
You need to ensure that users can only access the instance hosted in their region.
Which two actions should you perform to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create an Access Team for each region, and add the users from that region to the team.
B. Assign the Access Team to the instance hosted on the matching region.
C. Create a Security Group for each region, and add the users from that region to the group.
D. Assign the Security Group to the instance hosted on the matching region.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8
You are a system administrator. Staff at your company are reporting that when they load private documents into the Microsoft Dynamics 365 integration with Microsoft SharePoint, other staff members can access those documents.
You need to implement a solution that allows staff to save documents using Microsoft Dynamics 365 so that documents can only be seen by the owner.
What should you do?
A. Configure OneDrive for Business integration with Microsoft Dynamics 365.
B. Run Microsoft SharePoint Integration Wizard, and change the settings.
C. Change the privacy-related privileges in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
D. Change the Office Graph document settings in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
You are the technology director for a company that is preparing to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Since sales staff are allowed to bring their own devices to work, you are preparing a list of supported mobile devices that meet the minimum requirements of Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which two mobile device environments should be included in you? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. a tablet with 1 GB of memory running Windows 8.1
B. a 7-inch iPad Mini that has 8 GB of memory and uses Safari
C. a Windows 10 phone that uses the Microsoft Dynamics 365 app
D. a tablet with 2 GB of memory running Windows 7
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
You are a technical support specialist for your company and are responsible for supporting employee mobile devices.
The sales department recently began using Microsoft Dynamics 365. Some of the sales staff want to know if they need to use Microsoft Dynamics 365 for phones express to access the Microsoft Dynamics 365 server.
Which type of mobile device configuration requires the use of Microsoft Dynamics 365 for phones express?A. an iOS device with less than a 9-inch screen
B. an Android phone that does not have a supported browser
C. a Windows 10 phone that uses only a supported browser
D. a Windows 8.1 phone that uses the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for phones app
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
You are the network administrator for a company that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 and are reviewing all of the licensed users for your organization to ensure all are up to date.
What will occur if you remove a Microsoft Dynamics 365 license from a user?
A. The user can access sandbox instances but not production instances.
B. The user can access all instances but only view data in read-only mode.
C. The user’s account is deleted and cannot access any instances.
D. The user’s account is disabled and cannot access any instances.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
You are the technology director for a company that is planning a Microsoft Dynamics 365 implementation. The com currently uses Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012.
You are researching which edition is best to purchase for the company. In which instance is the Enterprise edition required?
A. The sales staff use desktop computers, as well as mobile devices.
B. The sales staff need online / on-premises dual use rights.
C. The sales staff use only a company-issued laptop to access Microsoft Dynamics 365.
D. The company wants all of its applications to be cloud-based.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
As a system administrator, you want to integrate the Office Graph from Microsoft Office 365 into Microsoft Dynamics 365. Which two steps should you take to perform this integration? Each corfeftfl answer presents part of the solution.
A. Set up Microsoft OneNote integration.
B. Enable Microsoft OneDrive for Business integration.
C. Enable Microsoft Office Graph integration.
D. Set up server-based Microsoft SharePoint integration.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
You are an administrator for an organization using Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook.
Your users are synchronizing records but want to make a few adjustments on which fields are included in the synchronization.
Who can make this change?
A. users with system administrator privileges
B. users with privileges to use the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook
C. users with privileges to sync to Outlook
D. users with privileges to go offline
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
You are the sales manager for a company that has more than 15,000 employees.
You plan to purchase Microsoft Dynamics 365 for your company, although only 750 seats will be required. Management wants all Microsoft Dynamics 365 users to have access to all Microsoft Dynamics 365 applications.
Based on this criteria, which licensing option should you select?
A. Enterprise Edition with APPS-based Licensing
B. Enterprise Edition with Plan-based Licensing
C. Business Edition with Plan-based Licensing
D. Business Edition with APPS-based Licensing
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
You are the technology director for a company that is considering a Microsoft Dynamics 365 implementation.
You are researching the type of license subscription you need to purchase.
In which two instances would a User Subscription License be appropriate? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. a sales executive who uses a combination of company and personal devices to access Microsoft Dynamics 365
B. desktop computers in the company’s training room that new sales staff use for training on company applications
C. a company workstation in the marketing department used by everyone on the sales staff
D. a Windows 10 phone that is only used by the sales manager of the company
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 17
You are a system administrator.
You add a new sandbox instance to your ten
How does this affect your storage limit?
A. It will add 10 GB.
B. It will add 2 GB.
C. It will make no change to your storage limit.
D. It will add 5 GB
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
You are the technology director for your company.
You need to purchase a subscription to Microsoft Dynamics 365 for the sales staff.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Purchase a Business License Premium subscription to Office 365.
B. Purchase a Microsoft Dynamics 365 subscription
C. Purchase a subscription through a Microsoft Partner.
D. Purchase a Microsoft Dynamics 365 subscription through the Office 365 Admin Portal
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 19
You have a sandbox instance being used for development purposes at your organization. The URL for this instance https://contosoSBXDEV.crm.dynamics.com.
The instance will now be used to test third-party ISV Solutions.
You need to ensure that the instance URL will be https://contosoISVtesting.crm.dynamics.com.
How can you accomplish this goal?
A. Edit the URL on the tenant properties.
B. Create a new instance with the new URL.
C. Edit the URL on the instance properties.
D. Enable domain name on the tenant properties.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
You are the system administrator for your company.
You need to deploy an instance to be used when testing third-party the instance after testing is completed.
Which type of instance should you use to accomplish this goal?
A. preview
B. sandbox
C. development
D. production
Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
You have a business process named Know Your Customer. Employees use this business process to capture key information about customers.
You must implement a business process flow (BPF) in Microsoft Dynamics 365 that represents this business process. You specify the name for the BPF as well as the stage names, entities, and stage category that the BPF will use.
You need to complete the BPF implementation.
Which three additional components can you configure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Step Required
B. Check Conditions
C. Wait Conditions
D. Step Display Names
E. Data Fields
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 2
You assign security roles to an owner team and each user on the team.
What effect does the security role that is assigned to the team have on the individual team members?
A. The permissions for the user are used instead of those of the team.
B. The user is granted the least restrictive permissions of the two roles.
C. The permissions for the team are used instead of those of the user.
D. The user is granted the most restrictive permissions of the two roles.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
You add a new entity named Parts to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You need to grant all users that have the Salesperson security role read access to the Parts entity.
Which tab of the Security Role page should you use?
A. Business Management
B. Missing Entities
C. Custom Entities
D. Customization
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which two field types can you configure as rollup fields? Each correct answer presents a com
A. single line of text
B. floating point number
C. date and time
D. decimal number
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 5
You export five modified system security roles from a development environment as an unmanaged solution. You solution into a production environment.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the import of the unmanaged solution?
A. Copies of security roles will be created automatically in the production environment.
B. The system security roles in production will be overwritten with the settings imported from the solution.
C. Security roles cannot be imported.
D. The import will fail because system security roles cannot be overwritten by importing a solution.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
You add a lookup for contacts to the case form.
You need to display the most recent primary phone number for a contact on the case form while minimizing administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Use a workflow to copy the phone number to a new field on the case when the contact changes.
B. Use a quick view form to display the phone number.
C. Use a web resource to query and display the phone number.
D. Use field mapping during record creation to copy the phone number to a new field on the case.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
You need to add the status reason Duplicate to the status value Cancelled for the case entity. What should you do?
A. Add the value to the Cancelled list of the Status field.
B. Add the value to the Cancelled list of the Status Reason field.
C. Using status reason transitions, add the value to the Cancelled status.
D. Using status reason transitions, add the value to the Cancelled status reason.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
You create an organization-owned custom entity.
You need to ensure that users can see the custom entity while minimizing the permissions that you grant users.
What should you do?
A. Ask a system administrator to share the records with the users who need access.
B. Grant access to all users and then remove the entity from the sitemap and advanced find. Provide users who need access a direct link to a view of the entity.
C. Grant the appropriate security roles user-level access to the custom entity.
D. Grant the appropriate security roles organization-level access to the custom entity.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
You need to use Theme settings to customize the Microsoft Dynamics 365 user interface for a customer. Which three actions can you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Export a theme as part of a solution.
B. Adjust accent colors including hover and selection colors.
C. Change the logo and navigation colors.
D. Change icon colors.
E. Provide entity-specific coloring.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 10
You administer a Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment for a company.
You need to prevent one specific employee from synchronizing data by using Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook without preventing the employee from using Microsoft Dynamics 365 tor Outlook.
What should you do?
A. Set the Web Mail Merge settings to None Selected for the individual’s security role.
B. Set the Sync to Outlook settings to None Selected for the individual’s security role.
C. Set the Dynamics 365 Address Book settings to None Selected for the individual’s security role.
D. Set the Use Dynamics 365 App for Outlook to None Selected for the individual’s security role.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which two statements are exclusive to managed solutions and not unmanaged solutions? Fach correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. You cannot export the solution.
B. When you remove the solution, all components items included in the solution are removed.
C. You must define entity assets for every entity that you add to the solution.
D. You must select a publisher for the solution
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 12
Which two form areas allow you to read from and write to all visible fields?
Each answer presents a complete solution.
A. Header
B. Body
C. Navigation
D. Footer
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
You create a business rule for the Account entity.
The business rule must run when you import account records. Which two conditions must be true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. The scope was set to Account.
B. The scope was set to Entity.
C. A business rule snapshot was successful.
D. A business rule is active.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 14
You are creating a set of system views.
Which three options can you configure for the views? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. read, write, and delete permissions
B. append, assign, and share permissions
C. default sort order for results
D. the widths of each column
E. the columns to display
Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 15
You configure a 1:N relationship between two entities and set the cascade rule for deletion to Referential.
What effect does deleting the parent record have on any child records?
A. The child records remain but the link to the parent record is removed.
B. The parent record cannot be deleted until all of the child records are first deleted.
C. The child records are deleted and the link to the parent record shows as deleted.
D. The child records are deleted along with the parent record.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
You implement Microsoft Office 365 groups for a company.
You need to ensure that all members of a specific security role can see and use an Office 365 group.
Which privilege should you assign to the security role?
A. ISV Extensions
B. Execute Workflow Job
C. Act on behalf of another user
D. Browse Availability
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
You need to provide users that have the Sales manager security role access to multiple business process flows (BPFs). Which two statements regarding role driven BPFs are true?
A. Users can select a default BPF for all records.
B. If a user does not have access to the current process that is applied to a record, options will be disabled.
C. Set Order defines the order in which BPFs are viewed.
D. You must use teams to control which groups of users have access to a BPF.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 18
You install a unmanaged solution named SolutionA that has a dependency on another unmanaged solution named SolutionB . What is the outcome when you attempt to uninstall SolutionB?
A. SolutionB and all components that are not dependencies of SolutionA are removed.
B. The system prevents you from deleting SolutionB .
C. SolutionB and all related components are removed.
D. The container for SolutionB is removed, but all its components remain.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
You need to install the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook on your device. What should you do?
A. In Settings, open Apps for Dynamics 365.
B. Add your user name to the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook eligible user list.
C. Enable the option to automatically add the app to Outlook.
D. Download and install the app from Microsoft AppSource.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
You are designing a managed solution that will be deployed to another part of the business. Users may want to customize specific parts of the solution after the solution is installed.
Which capability represents a managed property that users can configure;’
A. the ability to change the display name of a system entity
B. the ability to reassign a system dashboard
C. the ability to rename a web resource
D. the ability to add forms to a custom entity
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
You plan to implement a server-based integration between Microsoft Dynamics 365 and SharePoint Online. Which two statements are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. You only need to sign in to Microsoft Dynamics 365 to access documents stored in SharePoint.
B. SharePoint actions including Alert Me, Download a Copy, and Copy Shortcut are supported.
C. You do not need to implement a list component.
D. Users can create folders in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 22
You implement Microsoft Dynamics 365 for customers.
A customer reports that their sales support staff is taking too much time updating the probability on opportunities.
You must display an Editable Grid control when users view the Opportunity entity from the web. You must display a read-only grid when users view opportunities on a tablet device.
What should you do?
A. On the Opportunity entity, clear the Enable for mobile setting.
B. On the Outlook and Mobile Settings page for the Opportunity entity, configure the Organization data download filter.
C. On the Opportunity entity, select the Tablet option for the Microsoft Dynamics 365 Read- only Grid setting.
D. On the Opportunity entity, select the Read-only in mobile setting
Correct Answer: A
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Pass4itsure offers the latest Microsoft Dynamics 365 MB2-717 practice test free of charge (22Q&As)
QUESTION 1
An organization uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 for lead management
The organization wants to keep leads warm by contacting them weekly.
How should you help your users contact leads on a regular basis by using Relationship Insights?
A. Create a workflow on leads to remind the owner if there has been no activity for seven days.
B. Enable the Relationship Assistant on the card options for “No Activity with Lead.” and change the “Days before notifyingTM” to 7.
C. Enable Email Engagement on the card options for No Activity with Lead,” and change the “Days before notifyingTM” to 7.
D. Enable Relationship Insights with Relationship Analytics to show cards for leads with no activity.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
You are using Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You can find your disqualified leads but are unable to delete the ones you have chosen for deletion.
What do you need to do to delete the leads?
A. Ask your system administrator to give you the security permissions to delete leads.
B. Ask your system administrator to give you share permission to delete leads.
C. Reactivate the leads, then delete them.
D. Qualify the leads, and then delete them.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
You are a sales manager for a large company that is about to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365.
A company called Fabrikam. Inc. has three divisions within the company that purchase services from your firm.
You have created an account record for each of the three divisions and for Fabrikam. Inc.
and need to link the records.
How should you set up the records to properly link the record for Fabrikam, Inc. with its three divisions using Microsoft Dynamics 365 account management?
A. Fabrikam, Inc. is a Primary Contact
B. Fabrikam. Inc. is a Parent account.
C. Fabrikam. Inc. is a Parent Customer.
D. Fabrikam, Inc. is a Child account.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
A customer accepts a quote for 10 products sold by your organization. The customer agrees to pay for half of the total immediately and pay the other half once the products are received.
How do you track this transaction in Microsoft Dynamics 365 so the accounting department will understand the transaction?
A. Create a new invoice that includes all of the items sold to the customer, and set the invoice to the Partial Fulfilled status reason.
B. Create a new invoice that includes all of the items sold to the customer, and set the invoice to the Partial Paid status reason.
C. Create a new invoice that includes half of the items sold to the customer, and set the invoice to the Complete Fulfilled status reason.
D. Create a new invoice that includes half of the items sold to the customer, and set the invoice to the Complete Paid status reason.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Based on a conversation with a potential customer, you think there may be a Lead record for the customer in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You need to find the disqualified lead so that you can review the activity history on the lead.
Where are two places you can find this information? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Disqualified Leads view
B. Advanced Find
C. Closed Leads view
D. Leads Lookup view
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 6
An organization uses goals aligned with fiscal periods.
The fiscal periods were never set up and will now need to be aligned with the organization’s actual fiscal year and period. What will happen to the goal records that use the old fiscal period when the settings are updated?
A. Goals will automatically set the date range to match the new fiscal periods.
B. Goals will become inactive until they are manually aligned with the new fiscal periods.
C. Fiscal periods cannot be changed when used by active goals. Deactivate the goals while adjusting the fiscal period.
D. Goals will continue to run using the old fiscal periods. A user can manually update the goals if needed.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
You are a sales manager for your company.
In order to improve sales, you want Microsoft Dynamics 365 to analyze the daily actions and communications of your sales staff. In addition, you would like the analysis data to be used to remind your sales people of upcoming activities and
create actionable items to keep them focused.
Which feature of Microsoft Dynamics 365 performs these functions?
A. Auto Capture
B. Relationship Assistant
C. Email Engagement
D. Site Map Designer
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
You are working with an organization that has extended its reporting in Microsoft Dynamics 365 with Power BL The organization wants to use the Power BI dashboards and tiles inside Dynamics 365. Which two options are available? Each
correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Once Power BI is enabled for the organization, a complete Power BI Dashboard can be added as a personal dashboard.
B. Once Power BI is enabled for the organization, a Power BI tile can be added to a personal dashboard.
C. A System Administrator can add a Power BI Dashboard in Microsoft Dynamics 365 on a system dashboard.
D. A System Administrator can add a Power BI tile in Microsoft Dynamics 365 on a system dashboard.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 9
You are the sales manager for a company that utilizes Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Your sales department offers seasonal pricing on many of its products by using price lists which are then deactivated at the close of each season,
Which two outcomes occur as a result of deactivating these price lists? Each selection represents a complete answer.
A. The prices are removed from the default price list field for all of the company s products.
B. Any pre-existing opportunities associated with those price lists will continue to use them.
C. Any existing sales transactional records will automatically be deactivated until a new price list is created.
D. Any existing sales transactional records will automatically associate with the default price list.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
You are using Microsoft Dynamics 365 to track competitors.
A user has closed an opportunity as lost but the user forgot to add the correct competitor in the process.How should you instruct the user to ensure the correct competitor is tracked?
A. Ask the user to open the opportunity, close record associated with the opportunity, and add the competitor.
B. Ask the user to reopen the opportunity, and add the competitor association directly to the opportunity.
C. Ask the user to reopen the opportunity, repeat the close process, and add the competitor during this process.
D. Ask the user to change the competitor association on the opportunity record.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
You are a sales executive for a sates organization that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365. You are doing a global search for the name of a contact that you have not communicated with in over a year. You are using a partial value search, but the
global search is unable to find the contact record.
What is a reason that would prevent global search from finding the record?
A. Only an administrator can implement global searches.
B. The record for this contact is currently deactivated.
C. You cannot use partial values in a global search.
D. Global search only searches account and opportunity records.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
You receive an email from a person who was referred to your organization by a third party.
You track the email and create a Lead for the prospect After a few emails exchanged between you and the prospect you realize that the service they are want is not a service your company offers.
How do you capture this information in Microsoft Dynamics 365?
A. Disqualify the Lead.
B. Close the Lead as Lost.
C. Untrack the emails exchanged with the prospect
D. Qualify the Lead. Close the Opportunity as Lost.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
You are working with a sates division to better manage their sales processes by better utilizing the functionality of Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You recommend using Relationship Insights to better analyze customer-interaction data to improve sales efforts.
What are two features of Relationship Insights that can be used to accomplish this? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Auto Capture
B. Data Loader Service
C. Relationship Assistant
D. Sales Insights
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 14
You are a sales person for a large automobile dealership.
You created a lead within Microsoft Dynamics 365 for a potential customer who was interested in a current sales event at your dealership. The potential customer selected a new car but was unable to finance it due to bad credit The potential
customer has given up for the time being.
How should you modify the record to update it for this sales opportunity?
A. dose as Lost
B. dose as Won
C. dose as Disqualified
D. dose as Cancelled
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
You are using Microsoft Dynamics 365 to sell products in different currencies. The currency exchange rates are updated on a regular basis.
You need to anticipate the impact of the exchange rates on your analytics and KPIs.
What are all the circumstances in which the money fields are updated according to the current exchange rate in Microsoft Dynamics 365?
A. When the exchange rate is updated, all active records with the changed currency are updated.
B. It is updated any time the record is updated in any way.
C. It is updated when the record is created, a money field is updated, or the status changes.
D. When the currency is added to a record, the exchange rate is set until the currency field is changed.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
You need visibility to all of your Opportunities to better analyze the information to decide how best to progress with each. What is unique to a Personal View of Opportunities?
A. You can share them.
B. You can export them.
C. You can view them.
D. You can use Charts with them.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
You are creating Word Templates for a customer using Microsoft Dynamics 365.
The customer needs a Word Template for the account entity and wants to merge data records related to the account
Which related records can be included in the Word Templates?
A. only records related in N:1 and N:N relationships
B. only records related in N:1 and 1:N relationships
C. records related in 1:N. N:1. and N:N relationships
D. only records in an N:1 relationship
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
You are using Microsoft Dynamics 365 to track your competitors.
You want to take full advantage of the “Win/Loss” report that is available for competitors.
What two steps should your users take to track competitors to get reliable results from this report? Each answer represents a part of
the solution.
A. Track competitors on sales literature.
B. Track competitors on open opportunities.
C. Track competitors on opportunities closed as Lost
D. Track competitors on the products used.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 19
You have been working with a potential customer for some company.
You need to disqualify the lead in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
time and learn that they are purchasing the product from another
When disqualifying the lead, which option should you select?A. Disqualify > Lost to competitor
B. Disqualify > Lost
C. Disqualify
D. Disqualify > Reject Lead
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
You are a sales executive for a sales organization that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365. You want to create your own personal views within Dynamics 365. How can you perform this task?
A. Use the Advanced Find tool to create personal views.
B. Use Global Search to create personal views.
C. Use the Quick Find tool to create personal views.
D. Use an Editable Grid to create personal views.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
You are using Price Lists specific to campaigns.
A campaign has recently ended, and you deactivated the associated Price List
How are Opportunities. Quotes, and Orders with the campaign-specific price list affected by the deactivation?
A. Those that already have the deactivated Price List can continue to use the Price List as normal.
B. They will need to be manually updated with new the Price List when applicable.
C. Only Opportunities can continue to work with a deactivated Price List. Quotes and Orders require an active Price List
D. Orders require an active Price List All other types can continue to work if the Price List was added prior to deactivation.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
You need to create an Opportunity in Microsoft Dynamics 365 to track potential customers requesting information or pricing would lead you to track the activities of a potential sale.
What are three ways to create such an Opportunity? Each correct answer presents a complete solution,
A. from an email activity
B. from a Lead
C. from a Work Order
D. from a Case
E. manually
Correct Answer: ADE
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What is the name of this rack-mount server? 
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