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Cisco Specialist

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Latest effective Cisco 700-265 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which component of Cisco Stealthwatch uses sophisticated security analytics to accelerate threat response time?
A. network control
B. investigation
C. threat protection
D. anomaly detection
E. granular visibility
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Which three options are Cisco Advanced Threat Solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
B. Stealthwatch
C. remote access VPN
D. identity and access control
E. web security
F. cognitive Threat analytics
Correct Answer: ADF


QUESTION 3
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco TrustSec
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
Which two attack vectors are protected by cloud app security? (Choose two.)
A. mobile
B. cloud apps
C. voicemail
D. email
E. campus and branch
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 5
Which two Cisco business values demonstrate features of end-to-end protection and protection across the attack
continuum? (Choose two.)
A. completeness
B. cost effectiveness
C. protection
D. control
E. flexibility
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 6
How does Cisco TrustSec help secure sensitive data and regulating network access?
A. email security
B. leverage file reputation
C. ensure compliance
D. provide customer choice
E. traffic tagging
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
In addition to protection, control, and flexibility, which two business values are included in Cisco value propositions?
(Choose two.)
A. Support
B. Completeness
C. Cost effectiveness
D. Scalability
E. Integration
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 8
Which ISR appliance di you use if your customer is a small business that requires integrated switching and routing and
WAN redundancy?
A. FirePower 8000 secirs
B. Cisco 4000 Series ISR
C. Cisco 800 Series ISR
D. FirePower 7000 Series
E. FirePower 2100 Series
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
Which trait of Cisco security solutions addresses the worry that a customer\\’s security provider will leave the market or
reach end-of-life?
A. familiarity
B. functionality
C. robustness
D. cost
E. stability
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 10
Which Cisco business values are demonstrated by increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality,
and increased visibility?
A. protection
B. completeness
C. cost effectiveness
D. control
E. flexibility
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Which two aspects of Cisco solutions save customers money? (Choose two.)
A. 100 percent effectiveness
B. Faster integration
C. Fewer resources to manage
D. Lowest-cost solutions
E. Incentives programs
F. Complete replacement of current infrastructure
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 12
Which NGIPS appliance do you use if you customer is at the enterprise level and requires modular architecture that is
scalable?
A. FirePOWER 2100 Series
B. ASA 7000 Series
C. FirePOWER 8000 Series
D. Cisco 4000 Series ISR
E. Cisco 800 Series ISR
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 13
Which option describes how partners can help customers using their unique relationship with Cisco award-winning
resources and support?
A. Be the first to receive new innovations
B. Take advantage of incentives programs
C. Access 24-hour support around the word
D. Earn higher margins on each deal sold
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 14
Which phase of the software lifecycle deals with anticipating customer needs and bundling and adding products
accordingly?
A. plan and supply
B. upsell and cross sell
C. renew
D. land and expand
E. know and grow
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 15
Which three options are products and benefits of the mobile threat-centric solution? (choose three)
A. AnyConect
B. URL filter
C. Enhanced access and usage control with ISE
D. Enforced device security policies with Meraki
E. Secure off-network connection with Stealthwatch
F. CRD and network Analytics
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 16
How does the Cisco policy and access solution handle a changing user base in growing company?
A. Cisco delivers a flexible and scalable security solution framework that can adapt to changing customer needs.
B. Cisco architecture offers the lowest TCO by providing product that integrate, which lowers the cost of IT setup,
management, and maintenance.
C. Cisco Talos Security Intelligence and Research Group integrates into all security solutions, which provides advanced
protection against new threats.
D. Cisco provides you the ability to monitor and restrict application usage. As applications become more complex, Cisco
provides the flexibility to control all or subsets of the application.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 17
Which three options are a result of utilizing a fragmented security model? (Choose three.)
A. additional fragmentation that reduces the risk from malicious files
B. fragmented security that provides disbursed protection
C. decreased network accessibility through multiple applications
D. patchworked applications that continually increase in complexity
E. individual components pieced together that are incompatible
F. multiple points of access that can be exploited by cyber criminals
Correct Answer: AEF


QUESTION 18
Which two options are products and benefit of the campus and branch threat-centric solutions? (choose two)
A. Trojan and malware protection with NGIPS
B. Enhanced zero-day and DDoS attacks through NGFW
C. Cloud security policy management through CDO
D. Fuzzy fingerprint
E. Trusted security
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 19
Which issue do customers with vulnerable cloud issues deal with (choose three)
A. invisible employee apps usage
B. appropriate level of access
C. solution that does not extend to cloud
D. lack of protection from cloud apps
E. complex mobile management
F. expensive malware attacks
Correct Answer: BEF


QUESTION 20
Which three options are Cisco industry differentiators? (choose three)
A. uncontested threat blocking
B. unparalleled commitment to security
C. unmatched support and services
D. lowest price
E. largest selection of security solutions
F. best-in-class technologies
Correct Answer: BCF

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Microsoft Dynamics 365

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QUESTION 1
You are the administrator of a Microsoft Dynamics 365 instance.
Staff want to take advantage of Microsoft Exchange inbox folders in Microsoft Outlook to sort and track the email messages they have with customers.
Which action must you take to fulfill their request?
A. Use smart matching.
B. Use folder-level tracking.
C. Use tracking tokens.
D. Use correlation to track email conversations.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your are implementing Microsoft Dynamics 365 in an organization where many users have former versions of Microsoft Outlook and Windows.
What is the earliest supported scenario for Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook?
A. Windows 8 and Microsoft Office 2010
B. Windows 7 SP1 and Microsoft Office 2010
C. Windows 8.1 and Microsoft Office 2013
D. Windows 10 and Microsoft Office 2016
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You are a system administrator at Contoso, Inc.
You need to ensure that administrative notifications for your production instance are also sent to your external partner.
What should you do?
A. Add the external partner to the deployment administrators group.
B. Create an Office 365 group and forward notifications to the group.
C. Create a security group and forward notifications to the group.
D. Add the external partner as an additional recipient on the production instance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are a remote sales person using the Microsoft Dynamics 365 app on your tablet.
You need to create new records while in an area with no Internet access.
Which two statements are true about creating records offline? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Recently viewed records cached for offline access can be edited.
B. New records can be edited while they are drafts.
C. New records can be created as drafts while offline.
D. New records can be linked to each other while they are drafts.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
You are a system administrator, and your company recently began using Microsoft Dynamics 365. You need to perform a full copy from a training sandbox instance to one of your production instances. What should you do?
A. Switch the production instance to a sandbox, and perform a full copy from training.
B. Place the production instance in Administration mode, and perform a full copy from training.
C. Perform a full copy from the training instance to the production instance.
D. Switch the training instance to production, and perform a full copy.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are the network administrator for your company.
Management wants to deploy Microsoft Dynamics 365 for the sales division. The company has more than 2 million records, currently stored on-premises, that need to be migrated to Microsoft Dynamics 365. The technology director wants you
to utilize the Data Loader service for the migration process for the fastest possible migration.
What is a prerequisite for running the Data Loader service in this instance?
A. The data must be cleansed before using the Import Data Wizard to migrate it to the cloud.
B. Third-party tools must be installed in order to migrate the data with the Data Loader service.
C. The data set must reside in Azure on the same data center that hosts the company’s Microsoft Dynamics 365 instance.
D. The data must first be converted to CSV files before uploading it with the Import Data Wizard.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You are the system administrator for a company that is deploying Microsoft Dynamics 365 in multiple regions.
You need to ensure that users can only access the instance hosted in their region.
Which two actions should you perform to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create an Access Team for each region, and add the users from that region to the team.
B. Assign the Access Team to the instance hosted on the matching region.
C. Create a Security Group for each region, and add the users from that region to the group.
D. Assign the Security Group to the instance hosted on the matching region.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
You are a system administrator. Staff at your company are reporting that when they load private documents into the Microsoft Dynamics 365 integration with Microsoft SharePoint, other staff members can access those documents.
You need to implement a solution that allows staff to save documents using Microsoft Dynamics 365 so that documents can only be seen by the owner.
What should you do?
A. Configure OneDrive for Business integration with Microsoft Dynamics 365.
B. Run Microsoft SharePoint Integration Wizard, and change the settings.
C. Change the privacy-related privileges in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
D. Change the Office Graph document settings in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You are the technology director for a company that is preparing to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Since sales staff are allowed to bring their own devices to work, you are preparing a list of supported mobile devices that meet the minimum requirements of Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which two mobile device environments should be included in you? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. a tablet with 1 GB of memory running Windows 8.1
B. a 7-inch iPad Mini that has 8 GB of memory and uses Safari
C. a Windows 10 phone that uses the Microsoft Dynamics 365 app
D. a tablet with 2 GB of memory running Windows 7
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You are a technical support specialist for your company and are responsible for supporting employee mobile devices.
The sales department recently began using Microsoft Dynamics 365. Some of the sales staff want to know if they need to use Microsoft Dynamics 365 for phones express to access the Microsoft Dynamics 365 server.
Which type of mobile device configuration requires the use of Microsoft Dynamics 365 for phones express?A. an iOS device with less than a 9-inch screen
B. an Android phone that does not have a supported browser
C. a Windows 10 phone that uses only a supported browser
D. a Windows 8.1 phone that uses the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for phones app
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You are the network administrator for a company that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 and are reviewing all of the licensed users for your organization to ensure all are up to date.
What will occur if you remove a Microsoft Dynamics 365 license from a user?
A. The user can access sandbox instances but not production instances.
B. The user can access all instances but only view data in read-only mode.
C. The user’s account is deleted and cannot access any instances.
D. The user’s account is disabled and cannot access any instances.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are the technology director for a company that is planning a Microsoft Dynamics 365 implementation. The com currently uses Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012.
You are researching which edition is best to purchase for the company. In which instance is the Enterprise edition required?
A. The sales staff use desktop computers, as well as mobile devices.
B. The sales staff need online / on-premises dual use rights.
C. The sales staff use only a company-issued laptop to access Microsoft Dynamics 365.
D. The company wants all of its applications to be cloud-based.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
As a system administrator, you want to integrate the Office Graph from Microsoft Office 365 into Microsoft Dynamics 365. Which two steps should you take to perform this integration? Each corfeftfl answer presents part of the solution.
A. Set up Microsoft OneNote integration.
B. Enable Microsoft OneDrive for Business integration.
C. Enable Microsoft Office Graph integration.
D. Set up server-based Microsoft SharePoint integration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
You are an administrator for an organization using Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook.
Your users are synchronizing records but want to make a few adjustments on which fields are included in the synchronization.
Who can make this change?
A. users with system administrator privileges
B. users with privileges to use the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook
C. users with privileges to sync to Outlook
D. users with privileges to go offline
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You are the sales manager for a company that has more than 15,000 employees.
You plan to purchase Microsoft Dynamics 365 for your company, although only 750 seats will be required. Management wants all Microsoft Dynamics 365 users to have access to all Microsoft Dynamics 365 applications.
Based on this criteria, which licensing option should you select?
A. Enterprise Edition with APPS-based Licensing
B. Enterprise Edition with Plan-based Licensing
C. Business Edition with Plan-based Licensing
D. Business Edition with APPS-based Licensing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
You are the technology director for a company that is considering a Microsoft Dynamics 365 implementation.
You are researching the type of license subscription you need to purchase.
In which two instances would a User Subscription License be appropriate? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. a sales executive who uses a combination of company and personal devices to access Microsoft Dynamics 365
B. desktop computers in the company’s training room that new sales staff use for training on company applications
C. a company workstation in the marketing department used by everyone on the sales staff
D. a Windows 10 phone that is only used by the sales manager of the company
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 17
You are a system administrator.
You add a new sandbox instance to your ten
How does this affect your storage limit?
A. It will add 10 GB.
B. It will add 2 GB.
C. It will make no change to your storage limit.
D. It will add 5 GB
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You are the technology director for your company.
You need to purchase a subscription to Microsoft Dynamics 365 for the sales staff.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Purchase a Business License Premium subscription to Office 365.
B. Purchase a Microsoft Dynamics 365 subscription
C. Purchase a subscription through a Microsoft Partner.
D. Purchase a Microsoft Dynamics 365 subscription through the Office 365 Admin Portal
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 19
You have a sandbox instance being used for development purposes at your organization. The URL for this instance https://contosoSBXDEV.crm.dynamics.com.
The instance will now be used to test third-party ISV Solutions.
You need to ensure that the instance URL will be https://contosoISVtesting.crm.dynamics.com.
How can you accomplish this goal?
A. Edit the URL on the tenant properties.
B. Create a new instance with the new URL.
C. Edit the URL on the instance properties.
D. Enable domain name on the tenant properties.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
You are the system administrator for your company.
You need to deploy an instance to be used when testing third-party the instance after testing is completed.
Which type of instance should you use to accomplish this goal?
A. preview
B. sandbox
C. development
D. production
Correct Answer: D

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Microsoft Dynamics 365

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Exam MB2-716: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customization and Configuration:
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Pass4itsure offers the latest Microsoft Dynamics 365 MB2-716 practice test free of charge (22Q&As)

QUESTION 1
You have a business process named Know Your Customer. Employees use this business process to capture key information about customers.
You must implement a business process flow (BPF) in Microsoft Dynamics 365 that represents this business process. You specify the name for the BPF as well as the stage names, entities, and stage category that the BPF will use.
You need to complete the BPF implementation.
Which three additional components can you configure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Step Required
B. Check Conditions
C. Wait Conditions
D. Step Display Names
E. Data Fields
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 2
You assign security roles to an owner team and each user on the team.
What effect does the security role that is assigned to the team have on the individual team members?
A. The permissions for the user are used instead of those of the team.
B. The user is granted the least restrictive permissions of the two roles.
C. The permissions for the team are used instead of those of the user.
D. The user is granted the most restrictive permissions of the two roles.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You add a new entity named Parts to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You need to grant all users that have the Salesperson security role read access to the Parts entity.
Which tab of the Security Role page should you use?
A. Business Management
B. Missing Entities
C. Custom Entities
D. Customization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which two field types can you configure as rollup fields? Each correct answer presents a com
A. single line of text
B. floating point number
C. date and time
D. decimal number
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
You export five modified system security roles from a development environment as an unmanaged solution. You solution into a production environment.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the import of the unmanaged solution?
A. Copies of security roles will be created automatically in the production environment.
B. The system security roles in production will be overwritten with the settings imported from the solution.
C. Security roles cannot be imported.
D. The import will fail because system security roles cannot be overwritten by importing a solution.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You add a lookup for contacts to the case form.
You need to display the most recent primary phone number for a contact on the case form while minimizing administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Use a workflow to copy the phone number to a new field on the case when the contact changes.
B. Use a quick view form to display the phone number.
C. Use a web resource to query and display the phone number.
D. Use field mapping during record creation to copy the phone number to a new field on the case.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You need to add the status reason Duplicate to the status value Cancelled for the case entity. What should you do?
A. Add the value to the Cancelled list of the Status field.
B. Add the value to the Cancelled list of the Status Reason field.
C. Using status reason transitions, add the value to the Cancelled status.
D. Using status reason transitions, add the value to the Cancelled status reason.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You create an organization-owned custom entity.
You need to ensure that users can see the custom entity while minimizing the permissions that you grant users.
What should you do?
A. Ask a system administrator to share the records with the users who need access.
B. Grant access to all users and then remove the entity from the sitemap and advanced find. Provide users who need access a direct link to a view of the entity.
C. Grant the appropriate security roles user-level access to the custom entity.
D. Grant the appropriate security roles organization-level access to the custom entity.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You need to use Theme settings to customize the Microsoft Dynamics 365 user interface for a customer. Which three actions can you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Export a theme as part of a solution.
B. Adjust accent colors including hover and selection colors.
C. Change the logo and navigation colors.
D. Change icon colors.
E. Provide entity-specific coloring.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 10
You administer a Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment for a company.
You need to prevent one specific employee from synchronizing data by using Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook without preventing the employee from using Microsoft Dynamics 365 tor Outlook.
What should you do?
A. Set the Web Mail Merge settings to None Selected for the individual’s security role.
B. Set the Sync to Outlook settings to None Selected for the individual’s security role.
C. Set the Dynamics 365 Address Book settings to None Selected for the individual’s security role.
D. Set the Use Dynamics 365 App for Outlook to None Selected for the individual’s security role.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two statements are exclusive to managed solutions and not unmanaged solutions? Fach correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. You cannot export the solution.
B. When you remove the solution, all components items included in the solution are removed.
C. You must define entity assets for every entity that you add to the solution.
D. You must select a publisher for the solution
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
Which two form areas allow you to read from and write to all visible fields?
Each answer presents a complete solution.
A. Header
B. Body
C. Navigation
D. Footer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You create a business rule for the Account entity.
The business rule must run when you import account records. Which two conditions must be true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. The scope was set to Account.
B. The scope was set to Entity.
C. A business rule snapshot was successful.
D. A business rule is active.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
You are creating a set of system views.
Which three options can you configure for the views? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. read, write, and delete permissions
B. append, assign, and share permissions
C. default sort order for results
D. the widths of each column
E. the columns to display
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 15
You configure a 1:N relationship between two entities and set the cascade rule for deletion to Referential.
What effect does deleting the parent record have on any child records?
A. The child records remain but the link to the parent record is removed.
B. The parent record cannot be deleted until all of the child records are first deleted.
C. The child records are deleted and the link to the parent record shows as deleted.
D. The child records are deleted along with the parent record.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
You implement Microsoft Office 365 groups for a company.
You need to ensure that all members of a specific security role can see and use an Office 365 group.
Which privilege should you assign to the security role?
A. ISV Extensions
B. Execute Workflow Job
C. Act on behalf of another user
D. Browse Availability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
You need to provide users that have the Sales manager security role access to multiple business process flows (BPFs). Which two statements regarding role driven BPFs are true?
A. Users can select a default BPF for all records.
B. If a user does not have access to the current process that is applied to a record, options will be disabled.
C. Set Order defines the order in which BPFs are viewed.
D. You must use teams to control which groups of users have access to a BPF.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 18
You install a unmanaged solution named SolutionA that has a dependency on another unmanaged solution named SolutionB . What is the outcome when you attempt to uninstall SolutionB?
A. SolutionB and all components that are not dependencies of SolutionA are removed.
B. The system prevents you from deleting SolutionB .
C. SolutionB and all related components are removed.
D. The container for SolutionB is removed, but all its components remain.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
You need to install the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook on your device. What should you do?
A. In Settings, open Apps for Dynamics 365.
B. Add your user name to the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook eligible user list.
C. Enable the option to automatically add the app to Outlook.
D. Download and install the app from Microsoft AppSource.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
You are designing a managed solution that will be deployed to another part of the business. Users may want to customize specific parts of the solution after the solution is installed.
Which capability represents a managed property that users can configure;’
A. the ability to change the display name of a system entity
B. the ability to reassign a system dashboard
C. the ability to rename a web resource
D. the ability to add forms to a custom entity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
You plan to implement a server-based integration between Microsoft Dynamics 365 and SharePoint Online. Which two statements are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. You only need to sign in to Microsoft Dynamics 365 to access documents stored in SharePoint.
B. SharePoint actions including Alert Me, Download a Copy, and Copy Shortcut are supported.
C. You do not need to implement a list component.
D. Users can create folders in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 22
You implement Microsoft Dynamics 365 for customers.
A customer reports that their sales support staff is taking too much time updating the probability on opportunities.
You must display an Editable Grid control when users view the Opportunity entity from the web. You must display a read-only grid when users view opportunities on a tablet device.
What should you do?
A. On the Opportunity entity, clear the Enable for mobile setting.
B. On the Outlook and Mobile Settings page for the Opportunity entity, configure the Organization data download filter.
C. On the Opportunity entity, select the Tablet option for the Microsoft Dynamics 365 Read- only Grid setting.
D. On the Opportunity entity, select the Read-only in mobile setting
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
An organization uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 for lead management
The organization wants to keep leads warm by contacting them weekly.
How should you help your users contact leads on a regular basis by using Relationship Insights?
A. Create a workflow on leads to remind the owner if there has been no activity for seven days.
B. Enable the Relationship Assistant on the card options for “No Activity with Lead.” and change the “Days before notifyingTM” to 7.
C. Enable Email Engagement on the card options for No Activity with Lead,” and change the “Days before notifyingTM” to 7.
D. Enable Relationship Insights with Relationship Analytics to show cards for leads with no activity.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You are using Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You can find your disqualified leads but are unable to delete the ones you have chosen for deletion.
What do you need to do to delete the leads?
A. Ask your system administrator to give you the security permissions to delete leads.
B. Ask your system administrator to give you share permission to delete leads.
C. Reactivate the leads, then delete them.
D. Qualify the leads, and then delete them.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You are a sales manager for a large company that is about to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365.
A company called Fabrikam. Inc. has three divisions within the company that purchase services from your firm.
You have created an account record for each of the three divisions and for Fabrikam. Inc.
and need to link the records.
How should you set up the records to properly link the record for Fabrikam, Inc. with its three divisions using Microsoft Dynamics 365 account management?
A. Fabrikam, Inc. is a Primary Contact
B. Fabrikam. Inc. is a Parent account.
C. Fabrikam. Inc. is a Parent Customer.
D. Fabrikam, Inc. is a Child account.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A customer accepts a quote for 10 products sold by your organization. The customer agrees to pay for half of the total immediately and pay the other half once the products are received.
How do you track this transaction in Microsoft Dynamics 365 so the accounting department will understand the transaction?
A. Create a new invoice that includes all of the items sold to the customer, and set the invoice to the Partial Fulfilled status reason.
B. Create a new invoice that includes all of the items sold to the customer, and set the invoice to the Partial Paid status reason.
C. Create a new invoice that includes half of the items sold to the customer, and set the invoice to the Complete Fulfilled status reason.
D. Create a new invoice that includes half of the items sold to the customer, and set the invoice to the Complete Paid status reason.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Based on a conversation with a potential customer, you think there may be a Lead record for the customer in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You need to find the disqualified lead so that you can review the activity history on the lead.
Where are two places you can find this information? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Disqualified Leads view
B. Advanced Find
C. Closed Leads view
D. Leads Lookup view
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
An organization uses goals aligned with fiscal periods.
The fiscal periods were never set up and will now need to be aligned with the organization’s actual fiscal year and period. What will happen to the goal records that use the old fiscal period when the settings are updated?
A. Goals will automatically set the date range to match the new fiscal periods.
B. Goals will become inactive until they are manually aligned with the new fiscal periods.
C. Fiscal periods cannot be changed when used by active goals. Deactivate the goals while adjusting the fiscal period.
D. Goals will continue to run using the old fiscal periods. A user can manually update the goals if needed.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You are a sales manager for your company.
In order to improve sales, you want Microsoft Dynamics 365 to analyze the daily actions and communications of your sales staff. In addition, you would like the analysis data to be used to remind your sales people of upcoming activities and
create actionable items to keep them focused.
Which feature of Microsoft Dynamics 365 performs these functions?
A. Auto Capture
B. Relationship Assistant
C. Email Engagement
D. Site Map Designer
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You are working with an organization that has extended its reporting in Microsoft Dynamics 365 with Power BL The organization wants to use the Power BI dashboards and tiles inside Dynamics 365. Which two options are available? Each
correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Once Power BI is enabled for the organization, a complete Power BI Dashboard can be added as a personal dashboard.
B. Once Power BI is enabled for the organization, a Power BI tile can be added to a personal dashboard.
C. A System Administrator can add a Power BI Dashboard in Microsoft Dynamics 365 on a system dashboard.
D. A System Administrator can add a Power BI tile in Microsoft Dynamics 365 on a system dashboard.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
You are the sales manager for a company that utilizes Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Your sales department offers seasonal pricing on many of its products by using price lists which are then deactivated at the close of each season,
Which two outcomes occur as a result of deactivating these price lists? Each selection represents a complete answer.
A. The prices are removed from the default price list field for all of the company s products.
B. Any pre-existing opportunities associated with those price lists will continue to use them.
C. Any existing sales transactional records will automatically be deactivated until a new price list is created.
D. Any existing sales transactional records will automatically associate with the default price list.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You are using Microsoft Dynamics 365 to track competitors.
A user has closed an opportunity as lost but the user forgot to add the correct competitor in the process.How should you instruct the user to ensure the correct competitor is tracked?
A. Ask the user to open the opportunity, close record associated with the opportunity, and add the competitor.
B. Ask the user to reopen the opportunity, and add the competitor association directly to the opportunity.
C. Ask the user to reopen the opportunity, repeat the close process, and add the competitor during this process.
D. Ask the user to change the competitor association on the opportunity record.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You are a sales executive for a sates organization that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365. You are doing a global search for the name of a contact that you have not communicated with in over a year. You are using a partial value search, but the
global search is unable to find the contact record.
What is a reason that would prevent global search from finding the record?
A. Only an administrator can implement global searches.
B. The record for this contact is currently deactivated.
C. You cannot use partial values in a global search.
D. Global search only searches account and opportunity records.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You receive an email from a person who was referred to your organization by a third party.
You track the email and create a Lead for the prospect After a few emails exchanged between you and the prospect you realize that the service they are want is not a service your company offers.
How do you capture this information in Microsoft Dynamics 365?
A. Disqualify the Lead.
B. Close the Lead as Lost.
C. Untrack the emails exchanged with the prospect
D. Qualify the Lead. Close the Opportunity as Lost.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You are working with a sates division to better manage their sales processes by better utilizing the functionality of Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You recommend using Relationship Insights to better analyze customer-interaction data to improve sales efforts.
What are two features of Relationship Insights that can be used to accomplish this? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Auto Capture
B. Data Loader Service
C. Relationship Assistant
D. Sales Insights
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
You are a sales person for a large automobile dealership.
You created a lead within Microsoft Dynamics 365 for a potential customer who was interested in a current sales event at your dealership. The potential customer selected a new car but was unable to finance it due to bad credit The potential
customer has given up for the time being.
How should you modify the record to update it for this sales opportunity?
A. dose as Lost
B. dose as Won
C. dose as Disqualified
D. dose as Cancelled
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You are using Microsoft Dynamics 365 to sell products in different currencies. The currency exchange rates are updated on a regular basis.
You need to anticipate the impact of the exchange rates on your analytics and KPIs.
What are all the circumstances in which the money fields are updated according to the current exchange rate in Microsoft Dynamics 365?
A. When the exchange rate is updated, all active records with the changed currency are updated.
B. It is updated any time the record is updated in any way.
C. It is updated when the record is created, a money field is updated, or the status changes.
D. When the currency is added to a record, the exchange rate is set until the currency field is changed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
You need visibility to all of your Opportunities to better analyze the information to decide how best to progress with each. What is unique to a Personal View of Opportunities?
A. You can share them.
B. You can export them.
C. You can view them.
D. You can use Charts with them.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
You are creating Word Templates for a customer using Microsoft Dynamics 365.
The customer needs a Word Template for the account entity and wants to merge data records related to the account
Which related records can be included in the Word Templates?
A. only records related in N:1 and N:N relationships
B. only records related in N:1 and 1:N relationships
C. records related in 1:N. N:1. and N:N relationships
D. only records in an N:1 relationship
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You are using Microsoft Dynamics 365 to track your competitors.
You want to take full advantage of the “Win/Loss” report that is available for competitors.
What two steps should your users take to track competitors to get reliable results from this report? Each answer represents a part of
the solution.
A. Track competitors on sales literature.
B. Track competitors on open opportunities.
C. Track competitors on opportunities closed as Lost
D. Track competitors on the products used.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 19
You have been working with a potential customer for some company.
You need to disqualify the lead in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
time and learn that they are purchasing the product from another
When disqualifying the lead, which option should you select?A. Disqualify > Lost to competitor
B. Disqualify > Lost
C. Disqualify
D. Disqualify > Reject Lead
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
You are a sales executive for a sales organization that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365. You want to create your own personal views within Dynamics 365. How can you perform this task?
A. Use the Advanced Find tool to create personal views.
B. Use Global Search to create personal views.
C. Use the Quick Find tool to create personal views.
D. Use an Editable Grid to create personal views.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
You are using Price Lists specific to campaigns.
A campaign has recently ended, and you deactivated the associated Price List
How are Opportunities. Quotes, and Orders with the campaign-specific price list affected by the deactivation?
A. Those that already have the deactivated Price List can continue to use the Price List as normal.
B. They will need to be manually updated with new the Price List when applicable.
C. Only Opportunities can continue to work with a deactivated Price List. Quotes and Orders require an active Price List
D. Orders require an active Price List All other types can continue to work if the Price List was added prior to deactivation.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
You need to create an Opportunity in Microsoft Dynamics 365 to track potential customers requesting information or pricing would lead you to track the activities of a potential sale.
What are three ways to create such an Opportunity? Each correct answer presents a complete solution,
A. from an email activity
B. from a Lead
C. from a Work Order
D. from a Case
E. manually
Correct Answer: ADE

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QUESTION 1
You attempt to delete a queue in Microsoft Dynamics 365. You are not able to delete the queue.
What are two possible reasons why you cannot delete the queue? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. The queue contains a queue item.
B. The queue has a designated email address.
C. The queue is referenced by a routing rule.
D. The queue has a team owner.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
You create a service level agreement (SLA) for cases where the case priority is critical. The SLA must display a warning after 15 minutes and fail after 30 minutes.
You create a normal priority case at 16:00. You change the priority to critical at 16:15. If no action is taken, how many minutes will elapse before the SLA fails?
A. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 145 minutes
D. 60 minutes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which two actions can you perform by using entitlement channels? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Specify the number of customers allowed to use each channel ___
B. Restrict users from creating cases by using specified channels.
C. Restrict the number of child cases allowed for each parent case with a specified channel.
D. Specify the number of cases allowed for each channel.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment. You implement Field Service. You need to update a work order to indicate that you are traveling to the client.
Which field in the Field Service mobile app should you update?
A. Booking Status
B. Start Time
C. Actual Arrival Time
D. System Status
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You use the Field Service application.
You need to track users and equipment that are available for scheduling.
Which resource type should you use?
A. Bookable Resource
B. Warehouse Resource
C. Resource Group
D. Web Resource
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which two statements regarding the Unified Service Desk (USD) debugger are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Yellow highlights are used to indicate a warning regarding an action call.
B. Red highlights are used to indicate the failure of an event
C. You can view a replacement parameter list.
D. You can run an action call on demand.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
Which two statements regarding Microsoft Power BI dashboards are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Visualizations can display up to 5,000 records.
B. You can use Microsoft One Drive for Business as a data connection.
C. You can examine data by using natural language capabilities.
D. You can add up to six visualizations.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
You need to search for a specific knowledge base article by number.
Which two options can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Service Area
B. Relevance Search
C. Categorized Search
D. Article Template Quick Find
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
You use the interactive service hub for your daily work. You identify a knowledge base article that can assist with an open case for a customer.
You need to send the article to the customer. What should you do?
A. Create a new email record and set the regarding object to the knowledge base article.
B. Use Microsoft Skype for Business to send a link to the customer.
C. Send a link to the customer by using Email a link.
D. Search the knowledge base from within the case, and use the Link Article and Email Content option.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A user selects a case from a queue and studies the queue item details for the case. Which two data points are displayed? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. the user who owns the case
B. the time spent working on the case
C. the queue the case is related to
D. the user working on the case
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
Which queue type is created when you add a user to Dynamics 365?
A. System
B. Personal
C. Escalation
D. Shared
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You manage a Microsoft Dynamics 365 deployment You need to enable editable grids for an entity. What should you do?
A. Customize the entity.
B. Use the System Customizer tool.
C. Configure the Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook add-in.
D. Modify the system settings.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which three of the following are valid survey response actions?
A. Restart Survey
B. Toggle Visibility
C. Auto-Populate
D. End Survey
E. Chain Survey
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 14
The time period for a goal was not set correctly. You need to ensure that a user can correct the goal. What should you do?
A. Change the manager for the goal.
B. Add a new goal metric.
C. Add a child goal with the correct time period that is owned by the user.
D. Add a parent goal with the correct time period that is owned by the user.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You create a Voice of the Customer survey.
You need to configure an automatic response each time a customer completes the survey.
Which feature or component should you use?
A. rule
B. piped data
C. linked question
D. Microsoft Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
You have the Customer service representative security role. You apply a filter to the active case system view. You need to save the view. What should you do?
A. Create a personal view.
B. Save the filtered view.
C. Pin the view.
D. Use Save As and give the view a new name.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
You create and activate an entitlement. The start and end dates for the entitlement are in the future. What is the status of the entitlement?
A. Not started
B. On Hold
C. Pending
D. Waiting
Correct Answer: D
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Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. IPAM uses a Windows Internal Database.
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An administrator of the adatum.com domain runs the Set-ADUser cmdlet to configure a user named User1 to have a user logon name of [email protected] End or repeated scenario. You need to join Computer3 to the contoso.com domain by using offline domain join. Which command should you use in the contoso.com domain and on Computer3? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. Server2 and Server3 have the DHCP Server role installed and have several DHCP scopes configured. The IPAM server retrieves data from Server2 and Server3.
A domain user named User1 is a member of the groups shown in the following table.
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The relevant users and client computer in the domain are configured as shown in the following table.
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Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. Server2 has the DHCP Server role installed. The IPAM server retrieves data from Server2. You create a domain user account named User1. You need to ensure that User1 can use IPAM to manage DHCP. Which command should you run on Server1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Web Application Proxy role service installed.
You are publishing an application named App1 that will use Integrated Windows authentication as shown in the following graphic.
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Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. Your company has a custom application named ERP1. ERP1 uses an Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD LDS) server named Server1 to authenticate users. You have a member server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2016. You install the Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) server role on Server2 and create an AD FS farm. You need to configure AD FS to authenticate users from the AD LDS server. Which cmdlets should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 8
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A. Dsadd quota
B. Dsmod
C. Active Directory Administrative Center
D. Dsacls
E. Dsamain
F. Active Directory Users and Computers
G. Ntdsutil
H. Group Policy Management Console
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You plan to deploy a new Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) cluster on a server named Server1.
You need to create the AD RMS service account. The solution must use the principle of least privilege
What should you do?
A. Create a domain user account and add the account to the Account Operators group in the domain.
B. Create a local user account on Server1 and add the account to the Administrators group on Server1.
C. Create a domain user account and add the account to the Domain Users group in the domain.
D. Create a domain user account and add the account to the Administrators group on Server1.
70-742 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain functional level is Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to secure several high-privilege user accounts to meet the following requirements: What should you do?
A. Create a universal security group for the user accounts and modify the Security settings of the group.
B. Add the users to the Windows Authorization Access Group group.
C. Add the user to the Protected Users group.
D. Create a separate organizational unit (OU) for the user accounts and modify the Security settings of the OU.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. You have an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm. The farm contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a server named Server2 to the farm. Server2 runs Windows Server 2016. You remove Server1 from the farm. You need to ensure that you can use role separation to manage the farm. Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-AdfsFarmInformation
B. Update-AdfsRelyingPartyTrust
C. Set-AdfsProperties
D. Invoke-AdfsFarmBehaviorLevelRaise
70-742 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. A partner company has a forest named fabrikam.com. Each forest contains one domain. You need to provide access for a group named Research in fabrikam.com to resources in contoso.com. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. What should you do?
A. Create an external trust from fabrikam.com to contoso.com. Enable Active Directory split permissions in fabrikam.com.
B. Create an external trust from contoso.com to fabrikam.com. Enable Active Directory split permissions in contoso.com.
C. Create a one-way forest trust from contoso.com to fabrikam.com that uses selective authentication.
D. Create a one-way forest trust from fabrikam.com to contoso.com that uses selective authentication.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated Scenario: You work for a company named Contoso, Ltd.
The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. A forest trust exists between contoso.com and an Active Directory forest named adatum.com. The contoso.com forest contains the objects configured as shown in the following table.
Scenario:
Refer to following table:

Group1 and Group 2 contain only user accounts. Contoso hires a new remote user named User3. User3 will work from home and will use a computer named Computed that runs Windows 10. Computed is currently in a workgroup. An administrator named Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group in the contoso.com domain. From Active Directory Users and Computers, you create an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 in the contoso.com domain, and then you create a contact named Contact1 in OU1, An administrator of the adatum.com domain runs the Set-ADUser cmdlet to configure a user named User1 to have a user logon name of [email protected]
End of Scenario:
Admin1 attempts to delete OU1 and receives an error message. You need to ensure that Admin1 can delete OU1. What should you do first?
A. Delete Contact1.
B. Add Admin1 to the Enterprise Admins group.
C. Modify the Object settings for OU1.
D. Disable the Active Directory Recycle Bin.
70-742 pdf Correct Answer: C

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Citrix

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Share Some Citrix Specialist 1Y0-351 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below(1-24)

Exam B
QUESTION 1
Traffic to which destination is sourced from the NetScaler IP (NSIP) by default?
A. NTP servers
B. Clients on the Internet
C. Load-balanced web services
D. Load-balanced authentication services
1Y0-351 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A NetScaler Engineer configures COOKIEINSERT persistence method for an HTTP VServer named ‘myApp’. Many clients do NOT allow the persistence cookie to be set and application sessions fail as a result. All clients are behind a network address translation (NAT) gateway, which will insert the client IP address into an HTTP header called X-Forwarded-For. Which command could the engineer execute to provide persistence for clients while still distributing the requests across the bound services?
A. set lb vserver myApp -persistenceType SOURCEIP
B. set lb vserver myApp -persistenceType NONE -lbmethod SRCIPDESTIPHASH
C. set lb vserver myApp -persistenceType COOKIEINSERT -timeout 0 -cookieName X-Forwarded- For
D. set lb vserver myApp -persistenceType NONE -lb method TOKEN -rule “HTTP.REQ.HEADER(\”X
Forwarded-For\”).VALUE(0)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A NetScaler Engineer has created an SSL virtual server that utilizes SSL services. The engineer needs to configure certificate authentication from the NetScaler to the backend web services. What should the engineer do to meet the requirements outlined in the scenario?
A. Bind a CA Certificate to the SSL Services.
B. Bind a Client Certificate to the SSL Services.
C. Create an SSL policy to present the Client Certificate to the web services.
D. Enable Client Authentication and set Client Certificate to mandatory on the virtual server.
1Y0-351 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which service setting would a NetScaler Engineer use in the command-line interface to limit connections to server resources?
A. -maxReq
B. -maxClient
C. -monThreshold
D. -maxBandwidth
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement is true about interface link-state on the NetScaler?
A. Interface link-state is controlled by ifconfig in BSD.
B. Interface link-state is dependent on the HAMON setting.
C. Interface link-state CANNOT be brought down from the NetScaler.
D. Interface link-state on both appliances is unaffected by the force failover command.
1Y0-351 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
In order to configure integrated cache, a NetScaler Engineer would need to reboot the NetScaler when the integrated caching feature is __________ and cache memory limit is set to __________. (Choose the correct set of options to complete the sentence.)
A. enabled; zero
B. disabled; zero
C. enabled; non-zero
D. disabled; non-zero
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two certificate formats are supported when creating a certificate key pair on the NetScaler? (Choose two.)
A. PEM
B. DER
C. PKCS7
D. PKCS12
1Y0-351 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
As a result of connecting two NetScaler interfaces in the same L2 broadcast domain/VLAN (unless link aggregation is configured), the NetScaler will __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. restart
B. disable one interface
C. cause a network loop
D. disable both interfaces
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Scenario: Users in an organization need to access several web applications daily. Management has asked a NetScaler Engineer to reduce the amount of times users have to enter credentials when accessing web applications. What should the engineer configure to meet this requirement?
A. A load-balancing VServer and an authorization policy
B. An authentication VServer and an authorization policy
C. An authentication VServer and an authentication policy
D. A content switching VServer and an authentication profile
1Y0-351 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
The upgrade script copies the updated NetScaler kernel file to the __________ NetScaler directory. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. /var
B. /flash
C. /nsconfig
D. /flash/boot
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which setting must an engineer ensure is configured before a Subnet IP (SNIP) could be used to communicate with servers on the same network segment?
A. Static route is defined
B. USIP mode is enabled
C. USNIP mode is enabled
D. Default gateway is defined
1Y0-351 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which tool could a NetScaler Engineer use to monitor client-side rendering times for a Web application that is load-balanced by NetScaler?
A. Tcpdump
B. Insight Center
C. Command Center
D. NetScaler Dashboard
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which step could a network engineer take to prevent brute force logon attacks?
A. Enable the Rate Limiting feature.
B. Enable the AAA Application feature.
C. Configure the Access Gateway policies.
D. Configure the Cache redirection policies.
1Y0-351 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A network engineer should enable the Rate Limiting feature of a NetScaler system to mitigate the threat of __________ attack. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. reverse proxying
B. Java decompilation
C. source code disclosure
D. brute force logon attacks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which NetScaler feature could be used to stall policy processing to retrieve information from an external server?
A. Responder
B. HTTP callout
C. AppExpert template
D. EdgeSight monitoring
1Y0-351 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
An engineer has bound three monitors to a service group and configured each of the monitors with a weight of 10. How should the engineer ensure that the members of the service group are marked as DOWN when at least two monitors fail?
A. Re-configure the weight of each monitor to 0.
B. Configure the service group with a threshold of 21.
C. Configure the service group with a threshold of 20.
D. Re-configure the weight of each monitor to 5, and configure the service group threshold to 15.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
A network engineer has noted that the primary node in an HA pair has been alternating as many as three times a day due to intermittent issues. What should the engineer configure to ensure that HA failures are alerted?
A. LACP
B. SNMP
C. Route monitors
D. Failover Interface Set
1Y0-351 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
The disk is full on a NetScaler appliance but NO alerts were generated by the SNMP traps. What is the likely cause of this failed alert?
A. Auditing is not enabled.
B. EdgeSight monitoring is not configured.
C. The threshold was not set for the alarm.
D. Health monitoring has not been enabled.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
What type of protocol does AppFlow use for reporting?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. HTTP
D. SSL_TCP
1Y0-351 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Scenario: A network engineer monitoring an HTTP service-related issue needs to view only the relevant data pertaining to the service being monitored. The IP address of the back-end service being monitored is 10.10.1.99. The NSIP address is 10.10.1.230. Which command should the engineer execute to monitor data relevant to this issue only in real time?
A. telnet
B. traceroute
C. nsconmsg
D. nstcpdump
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Scenario: A NetScaler environment uses two-factor authentication and the second authentication method is AD. A user logs in to the environment but does NOT receive access to the resources that the user should have access to. How can an engineer determine the AD authentication issue on the NetScaler?
A. Check NSlogs
B. Use nsconmsg
C. Use the cat aaad.debug command
D. Check the authorization configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
A NetScaler is configured with two-factor authentication. A user reported that authentication failed. How can an engineer determine which factor of the authentication method failed?
A. Check NSlog
B. Use nsconmsg
C. Check the dashboard
D. Use cat aaad.debug command
1Y0-351 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
A public SSL certificate on a virtual server is about to expire and the NetScaler engineer needs to renew the certificate before it expires.
Which step must the engineer take to renew the SSL Certificate?
A. Generate a new CSR
B. Recreate the Private Keys
C. Execute CRL Management
D. Update the existing certificate
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
An environment network has:
– High bandwidth
– Low packet loss
– High Round-Trip Time (RTT)
Which TCP profile should an engineer configure for the environment described?
A. Nstcp_default_profile
B. Nstcp_default_tcp_lfp
C. Nstcp_default_tcp_lnp
D. Nstcp_default_tcp_lan
1Y0-351 exam Correct Answer: B

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[New Updated Questions] Most Popular Microsoft 70-673 Dumps Vce Questions MCTS Exam Is Your Best Choice Q&As 1-22

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Share Some Microsoft Specialist 70-673 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below(1-22)

QUESTION 1
How many years of experience do you have designing, assessing, and optimizing Software Asset Management (SAM)?
A. I have not done this yet.
B. Less than 3 months
C. 3-6 months
D. More than 6 months but less than 1 year
E. 1-2 years
F. 2-3 years
G. 3 or more years
70-673 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Rate your level of proficiency with assessing SAM programs by using the SAM Optimization Model, including defining scope, assessing SAM processes throughout an organization, assigning maturity levels according to the 10 components of the SAM Optimization Model, and performing gap analysis between current and desired maturity levels.
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Rate your level of proficiency with performing software license reviews, including conducting inventories, validating and managing license entitlement records, and reconciling software inventories and report license compliance status.
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
70-673 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Rate your level of proficiency with coordinating technologies, including managing data collection, data interfaces between disparate data sources, and reporting.
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Rate your level of proficiency with designing, implementing, and managing a SAM program, including securing executive sponsorship and funding.
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
70-673 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Rate your level of proficiency with managing the Software Asset life cycle, including acquisition, deployment, maintenance, and retirement.
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Rate your level of proficiency with IT procurement, IT contract negotiations and management (i.e. software licensing, terms and conditions), and IT operations (i.e. application package management, network administration).
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
70-673 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Rate your level of proficiency with Microsoft licensing models and product use right (PUR).
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Rate your level of proficiency with audit procedures (i.e. ITIL SAM-related standards, ISO/IEC 19770 standards).
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
70-673 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Rate your level of proficiency with Microsoft Operations Framework (MOF).
A. Very High
B. High
C. Moderate
D. Low
E. Very Low
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Your customer has one office. All software and hardware purchasing is centralized. You need to define the scope of a SAM program assessment for the customer. Which information should you collect?
A. current license versions
B. install, move, add, change (IMAC) activities
C. list of people responsible for SAM sign-off
D. quantity of server licenses
70-673 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Your customer has Active Directory and Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (CfgMgr). You need to identify which data fields must be used to create a baseline hardware inventory report by using Active Directory and CfgMgr. Which data fields should you identify?
A. Fully qualified domain name (FQDN) and Processor
B. MAC address and Product title
C. Operating system version and Product title
D. User name and NetBIOS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Your customer’s network contains a SAM tool. You use the SAM tool to generate reports. The customer installs both Microsoft Office Visio Standard and Microsoft Office Visio Professional. The customer only purchases licenses for Visio Professional. You need to create a report to reconcile the Visio licenses. Which report should you create?
A. software deployments by edition
B. software entitlements purchased by month
C. software requests by employee
D. software usage by server product
70-673 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You are developing a business plan for a SAM program for a customer. All senior staff, Accounting department managers, and IT department managers attend initial SAM planning meetings. You need to complete the business plan for the customer. What should you do next?
A. Secure executive sponsorship.
B. Secure approval from the Accounting department.
C. Obtain a purchase order from the Accounting department.
D. Obtain a list of all installed software from the IT department.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You plan to secure funding for a SAM program.You gather the following information from a customer:
use different versions of Microsoft Office. You need to identify two benefits that support implementing a SAM program for the customer. Which two benefits should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Decreased licensing costs
B. Decreased IT support costs
C. Improved payment processes
D. Improved project management processes
70-673 vce Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 16
You design a SAM program for a customer. You implement an asset management system. You need to design a process to identify all owned software licenses. What should you integrate into the asset management system?
A. an auto-discovery tool
B. a change management system
C. a human resources system
D. a procurement system
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Your customer has a SAM program. The customer installs SAM tools that monitor approved software installations. You need to monitor whether the customer adheres to approved software installation policies. What should you do?
A. Perform quarterly inventory verifications.
B. Perform quarterly license metering verifications.
C. Perform quarterly hardware inventory verifications.
D. Perform quarterly human resources audits for new employees.
70-673 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Your customer plans to improve the application recognition of a software inventory tool. You need to measure the performance of the application recognition function. Which metric should you use?
A. software purchases compared to software requests
B. software purchases from authorized vendors
C. software requests compared to software installations
D. unknown software executables in the environment
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
You plan to manage a deployment process for a customer. You need to implement a change management system in the customer’s server environment. What should you do?
A. Identify all server hardware purchases.
B. Identify all approved hardware vendors.
C. Monitor costs saved by reusing software.
D. Monitor install, move, add, change (IMAC) activities.
70-673 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Your customer purchases Microsoft Office Project 2003 under a volume license agreement. The customer does not have Microsoft Software Assurance. The customer installs 200 copies of Project 2007. You need to ensure that the customer is in compliance with software licensing. The solution must minimize costs. What should you do?
A. Purchase Microsoft Software Assurance.
B. Purchase 200 full packaged product (FPP) licenses for Microsoft Office Project 2007.
C. Purchase 200 full packaged product (FPP) licenses for Microsoft Office Standard 2007.
D. Purchase 200 Microsoft Office Project 2007 licenses through the customer’s volume licensing agreement.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Your customer uses Microsoft Office Excel to maintain an inventory of software and hardware assets. You need to recommend a tool that generates daily reports on changes to the inventory of applications installed on computers. Which tool should you recommend?
A. a network monitoring tool
B. a procurement tool
C. the SAM ROI Calculator
D. a software asset inventory tool
70-673 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Your customer’s network consists of one Active Directory forest. The network contains a Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (CfgMgr) server and a Microsoft System Center Operations Manager (OpsMgr) server. All computers are joined to the Active Directory domain and have both CfgMgr and OpsMgr clients installed. You plan to manage the software and hardware retirement process for the customer. You need to identify all retired desktop computers. What should you do?
A. Generate a CfgMgr report.
B. Generate an OpsMgr report.
C. Review the Active Directory Group Policy objects (GPOs).
D. Review the Active Directory domain controller event viewer logs.
Correct Answer: A

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Share Some Microsoft Specialist 70-341 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below(4-7)

Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
You need to recommend a design that meets the technical requirements for communication between Fabrikam and A. Datum. Which three actions should you perform in fabrikam.com? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Create a remote domain for adatum.com.
B. Exchange certificates with the administrators of adatum.com.
C. From EDGE1, create a Send connector that has an address space for adatum.com
D. Run the Set-TransportConfigcmdlet.
E. Run the Set-TransportServercmdlet.
F. From a Mailbox server, create a Send connector that has an address space for adatum.com.
70-341 exam Answer: B,D,F
Explanation:
NOT A
Applies to: Exchange Server 2013, Exchange Online
Remote domains are SMTP domains that are external to your Microsoft Exchange organization. You can create remote domain entries to define the settings for message transferred between your Exchange organization and specific external domains. The settings in the remote domain entry for a specific external domain override the settings in the default remote domain that normally apply to all external recipients. The remote domain settings are global for the Exchange organization. You can create remote domain entries to define the settings for message transfers between your Exchange Online organization and external domains. When you create a remote domain entry, you control the types of messages that are sent to that domain. You can also apply message format policies and acceptable character sets for messages that are sent from users in your organization to the remote domain.
NOT C
Edge1 is in the perimeter network and the send connector needs to be created on a mailbox server
NOT E
Set-TransportServercmdlet. Use the Set-TransportServer cmdlet to set the transport configuration options for the Transport service on Mailbox servers or for Edge Transport servers. This example sets the DelayNotificationTimeout parameter to 13 hours on server named Mailbox01. Set-TransportServer Mailbox01 -DelayNotificationTimeout 13:00:00
Need Set-TransportConfig and the TLSReceiveDomainSecureList parameter to specify the domains from which you want to receive domain secured email by using mutual Transport Layer Security (TLS) authentication.
B
To activate SSL encryption on an Exchange server, you need a server certificate on the Client Access Server in each company. The client access server is the internet facing server in an organization. An SSL certificate is a digital certificate that authenticates the identity of the exchange server and encrypts information that is sent to the server using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) technology Mailbox server certificates One key difference between Exchange 2010 and Exchange 2013 is that the certificates that are used on the Exchange 2013 Mailbox server are self-signed certificates. Because all clients connect to an Exchange 2013 Mailbox server through an Exchange
2013 Client Access server, the only certificates that you need to manage are those on the Client Access server. The Client Access server automatically trusts the self-signed certificate on the Mailbox server, so clients will not receive warnings about a self-signed certificate not being trusted, provided that the Client Access server has a non-self-signed certificate from either a Windows certification authority (CA) or a trusted third party. There are no tools or cmdlets available to manage self-signed certificates on the Mailbox server. After the server has been properly installed, you should never need to worry about the certificates on the Mailbox server.
D
Set-TransportConfig.
Use the Set-TransportConfig cmdlet to modify the transport configuration settings for the whole Exchange organization.
EXAMPLE 1
This example configures the Exchange organization to forward all DSN messages that have the DSN codes 5.7.1, 5.7.2, and 5.7.3 to the postmaster email account. Set-TransportConfig -GenerateCopyOfDSNFor 5.7.1,5.7.2,5.7.3 The TLSReceiveDomainSecureList parameter specifies the domains from which you want to receive domain secured email by using mutual Transport Layer Security (TLS) authentication.
F
If you want to ensure secure, encrypted communication with a partner, you can create a Send connector that is configured to enforce Transport Layer Security (TLS) for messages sent to a partner domain. TLS provides secure communication over the Internet. Use the EAC to create a Send connector to send email to a partner, with TLS applied To create a Send connector for this scenario, log in to the EAC and perform the following steps:
In the EAC, navigate to Mail flow > Send connectors, and then click Add .
In the New send connector wizard, specify a name for the send connector and then select Partner for the Type.
When you select Partner, the connector is configured to allow connections only to servers that authenticate with TLS certificates. Click Next. Verify that MX record associated with recipient domain is selected, which specifies that the connector uses the domain name system (DNS) to route mail. Click Next. Under Address space, click Add . In the Add domain window, make sure SMTP is listed as the Type. For Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN), enter the name of your partner domain. Click Save. For Source server, click Add . In the Select a server window, select a Mailbox server that will be used to send mail to the Internet via the Client Access server and click Add . After
you’ve selected the server, click Add . Click OK. Click Finish. Once you have created the Send connector, it appears in the Send connector list.
Send Connector
In Microsoft Exchange Server 2013, a Send connector controls the flow of outbound messages to the receiving server. They are configured on Mailbox servers running the Transport service. Most commonly, you configure a Send connector to send outbound email messages to a smart host or directly to their recipient, using DNS. Exchange 2013 Mailbox servers running the Transport service require Send connectors to deliver messages to the next hop on the way to their destination. Send connectors that are created on Mailbox servers are stored in Active Directory and are available to all Mailbox servers running the Transport service in the organization.

Question No : 5 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You are evaluating the implementation of a second Edge Transport server named EDGE2 in the Amsterdam office. You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to ensure that email messages can be sent by the organization if a single Edge Transport server fails. Which three actions should you include in the recommendation? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
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Answer:
70-341 dumps

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
You need to recommend which type of group must be used to create the planned department lists. Which type of group should you recommend?
A. Universal Distribution
B. Dynamic Distribution
C. Global Security
D. Universal Security
70-341 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
There are two types of groups that can be used to distribute messages: Mail-enabled universal distribution groups (also called distribution groups) can be used only to distribute messages. Mail-enabled universal security groups (also called security groups) can be used to
distribute messages as well as to grant access permissions to resources in Active Directory. For more information, see Manage Mail-Enabled Security Groups. A mail-enabled security group is an Active Directory universal security group object that can be used to assign access permissions to resources in Active Directory and can also be used to distribute messages. It’s important to note the terminology differences between Active Directory and Exchange. In Active Directory, a distribution group refers to any group that doesn’t have a security context, whether it’s mail-enabled or not. In contrast, in Exchange, all mail-enabled groups are referred to as distribution groups, whether they have a security context or not. Dynamic Distribution Groups Unlike regular distribution groups that contain a defined set of members, the membership list for dynamic distribution groups is calculated each time a message is sent to the group, based on the filters and conditions that you define. When an email message is sent to a dynamic distribution group, it’s delivered to all recipients in the organization that match the criteria defined for that group.

Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to meet the technical requirements of the research and development (R&D) department. Which two tasks should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Create a new global address list (GAL) and a new address book policy.
B. Modify the permissions of the default global address list (GAL), and then create a new GAL.
C. Run the Update AddressList cmdlet.
D. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
E. Create an OAB virtual directory.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
NOT B
Need an address book policy
NOT C
Update AddressList cmdlet
Use the Update-AddressList cmdlet to update the recipients included in the address list that you specify.
EXAMPLE 1
This example updates the recipients of the address list building4 and under the container All Users\Sales. Update-AddressList -Identity “All Users\Sales\building4”
NOT E
Will not resolve the issue
Need an address book policy and to assign this policy to users.
A
Address book policies (ABPs) allow you to segment users into specific groups to provide customized views of your organization’s global address list (GAL). When creating an ABP, you assign a GAL, an offline address book (OAB), a room list, and one or more address lists to the policy. You can then assign the ABP to mailbox users, providing them with access to a customized GAL in Outlook and Outlook Web App. The goal is to provide a simpler mechanism to accomplish GAL segmentation for on premises organizations that require multiple GALs.
D
After you create an address book policy (ABP), you must assign it to mailbox users. Users aren’t assigned a default ABP when their user account is created. If you don’t assign an ABP to a user, the global address list (GAL) for your entire organization will be accessible to the user through Outlook and Outlook Web App. This example assigns the ABP All Fabrikam to the existing mailbox user.
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QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
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Based on the debug output, which three statements about HSRP are true? (Choose Three)
A. The final active router is the router with IP address 172.16.11.111
B. The router with IP address 172.16.11.111 has preempt configured
C. The priority of the router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is preferred over the router with IP address 172.16.11.111
D. The IP address 172.16.11.115 is the virtual HSRP IP address
E. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 has nonpreempt configured
F. The router with IP address 172.16.11.112 is using default HSRP priority.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 19
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a device failure.

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Refer to the exhibit. If router R1 interface Etherne0/0 goes down and recovers, which of the statement regarding HSRP priority is true?
A. The interface will have the priority decremented by 40 for HSRP group 1.
B. The interface will have the priority decremented by 60 for HSRP group 1
C. The interface will have its current priority incremented by 40 for HSRP group 1
D. The interface will have its current priority incremented by 60 for HSRP group 1
E. The interface will default to the a priority of 100 for HSRP group 1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution and core switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution. DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105  DSW2 – primary device for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104 A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed. Troubleshooting has identified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.
300-115 dumps

What is the priority value of the VLAN 105 HSRP group on DSW2?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 150
D. 200
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Your customer has asked you to come in and verify the operation of routers R1 and R2 which are configured to use HSRP. They have questions about how these two devices will perform in the event of a device failure.
300-115 dumps

What issue is causing Router R1 and R2 to both be displayed as the HSRP active router for group 2?
A. The HSRP group number mismatch
B. The HSRP group authentication is misconfigured
C. The HSRP Hello packets are blocked
D. The HSRP timers mismatch
E. The HSRP group priorities are different
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Scenario:
You work for SWITCH.com. They have just added a new switch (SwitchB) to the existing network as shown in the topology diagram.
RouterA is currently configured correctly and is providing the routing function for devices on SwitchA and SwitchB. SwitchA is currently configured correctly, but will need to be modified to support the addition of SwitchB. SwitchB has a minimal configuration. You have been tasked with competing the needed configuring of SwitchA and SwitchB. SwitchA and SwitchB use Cisco as the enable password.
Configuration Requirements for SwitchA The VTP and STP configuration modes on SwitchA should not be modified.
• SwitchA needs to be the root switch for vlans 11, 12, 13, 21, 22 and 23. All other vlans should be left are their default values. 
Configuration Requirements for SwitchB
• Vlan 21
Name: Marketing will support two servers attached to fa0/9 and fa0/10
• Vlan 22
Name: Sales will support two servers attached to fa0/13 and fa0/14
• Vlan 23
o Name: Engineering
o will support two servers attached to fa0/15 and fa0/16
• Access ports that connect to server should transition immediately to forwarding state upon detecting the connection of a device.
• SwitchB VTP mode needs to be the same as SwitchA.
• SwitchB must operate in the same spanning tree mode as SwitchA
• No routing is to be configured on SwitchB
• Only the SVI vlan 1 is to be configured and it is to use address 192.168.1.11/24 
Inter-switch Connectivity Configuration Requirements
• For operational and security reasons trunking should be unconditional and Vlans 1, 21, 22 and 23 should tagged when traversing the trunk link.
• The two trunks between SwitchA and SwitchB need to be configured in a mode that allows for the maximum use of their bandwidth for all vlans. This mode should be done with a non-proprietary protocol, with SwitchA controlling activation.
• Propagation of unnecessary broadcasts should be limited using manual pruning on this trunk link.

300-115 dumps

 

QUESTION 23
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QUESTION 24
Because of the large number of factors that could affect the demand for its new product, interactions among these factors, and the probabilities associated with different values of these factors, the marketing department would like to develop a computerized model for projecting demand for this product. By using a random number procedure to generate values for the different factors, it will be able to estimate the distribution of demand for this new product. This method of estimating the distribution of demand for the new product is called
A. Monte Carlo simulation.
B. Linear programming.
C. Correlation analysis.
D. Differential analysis.
300-115 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique in which a probabilistic process is first modeled. The inputs to themodel are then varied a large number of times to estimate the distribution of possibleoutcomes from the model of the variable of interest. Simulations that use a random numberprocedure to generate values for the inputs are referred to as Monte Carlo simulations.

QUESTION 25
An account executive has just designed a Monte Carlo model to estimate the costs of a particular type of project. Validating the model could include all except:
A. Checking for errors in the computer programming.
B. Checking that assumed probability distributions are reasonable.
C. Comparing test results with previously validated models.
D. Applying the model.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Monte Carlo technique is used in a simulation to generate the individual values for arandom value. An essential step in the simulation procedure is to validate the mathematicalmodel used. This process involves not only searching for errors but also verifying theassumptions. It also should provide some assurance that the results of the experiment will berealistic. This assurance is often obtained using historical data. If the model gives resultsequivalent to what actually happened, the model is historically valid. There is still some risk,however, that changes could make the model invalid for the future. The model should not beimplemented until this validation process is complete.

QUESTION 26
A large fishing operation has information on the interval, time, and probabilities of shrimp schools staying beneath their fishing boats. In order to use this information to predict when and where to send their boats, which of the following techniques should be used?
A. Simulation.
B. Least squares.
C. Queuing theory.
D. Exponential smoothing.
300-115 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation Monte Carlo simulation) is a technique for experimenting withlogical/mathematical models using a computer. Despite the power of mathematics, manyproblems cannot be solved by known analytical methods because of the behavior of thevariables and the complexity of their interactions. However, the performance of aquantitative model under uncertainty may be investigated by randomly selecting values foreach variable in the model based on its probability distribution) and then calculating thevalue of the solution. If this process is performed many times, the distribution of results fromthe model will be obtained.

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is not true about simu-lation models?
A. They are deterministic in nature.
B. The may involve sampling.
C. They mathematically estimate what actual performance would be.
D. They emulate stochastic systems.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique for experimenting with logical/mathematical models using acomputer. The simulation procedure has five steps: define the objectives, formulate themodel, validate the model, design the experiment, and conduct the simulation and evaluatethe results. A simulation uses the laws of probability to generate values for random variables. Thus, simulation models are probabilistic, not deterministic.

QUESTION 28
A cost-volume-profit model developed in a dynamic environment determined that the estimated parameters used may vary between limits. Subsequent testing of the model with respect to all possible values of the estimated parameters is termed:
A. A sensitivity analysis.
B. Statistical estimation.
C. Statistical hypothesis testing.
D. A time-series study.
300-115 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
After a problem has been formulated into any mathematical model, it may be subjected tosensitivity analysis. Sensitivity analysis is a method for studying the effects of changes in oneor more variables on the results of a decision model.

QUESTION 29
An investment company is attempting to allocate its available funds between two investment alternatives, stocks and bonds, which differ in terms of expected return and risk. The company would like to minimize its risk while earning an expected return of at least 10% and investing no more than 70% in either of the investment alternatives. An appropriate technique for allocating its funds between stocks and bonds is:
A. Linear programming.
B. Capital budgeting.
C. Differential analysis.
D. Queuing theory.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Linear programming is a mathematical technique for planning resource allocation thatoptimizes a given objective function that is subject to certain constraints. In this case, themaximum investment is constrained by a 70% limit on either investment choice.

QUESTION 30
A company is deciding whether to purchase an automated machine to manufacture one of its products. Expected net cash flows from this decision depend on several factors, interactions among those factors, and the probabilities associated with different levels of those factors.
The method that the company should use to evaluate the distribution of net cash flows from this decision and changes in net cash flows resulting from changes in levels of various factors is:
A. Simulation and sensitivity analysis.
B. Linear programming.
C. Correlation analysis.
D. Differential analysis.
300-115  pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Simulation is a technique used to describe the behavior of a real-world system over time. This technique usually employs a computer program to perform the simulation computations. Sensitivity analysis examines how outcomes change as the model parameters change.

 

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