Index

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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam 70-735: OEM Manufacturing and Deployment for Windows 10: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-735.aspx

Candidates for this exam are OEM, ODM, or IDH Windows image builders who are familiar with using the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit
(Windows ADK) to manage and deploy Windows 10. These candidates install or assemble hardware with genuine preinstalled Windows 10. These
candidates also create complete images for deployment to customer devices such as desktops, laptops, and tablets.

Candidates for this exam should have at least one year of experience managing day-to-day issues involving Windows deployment. Candidates
should be familiar with the tools designed to deploy optimized hardware solutions for Microsoft platforms.

Microsoft 70-735 Skills measured

• Prepare the Imaging Environment (20-25%)
• Service the Offline Image (40-45%)
• Service the Online Image (35-40%)

Latest effective Microsoft 70-735 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are building a new image of Windows 10 that contains a push-button reset solution.
You need to test whether push-button reset works as expected.
Solution: From Windows 10, you press and hold the SHIFT key, and then you restart the computer. After the computer
restarts, you click Troubleshoot, and then you click Reset this PC.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/12415/windows-10-recovery-options https://docs.microsoft.com/en-
us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/push-button-reset-overview

QUESTION 2
You have a computer that runs Windows 10. The computer starts in UEFI mode and has a 64-bit processor.
You insert a USB key in the computer. The USB key has a drive letter of F.
You need to ensure that you can start the computer by using Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) from
the USB key.
Which two commands should you run? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. makewinpemedia.cmd /UFD C:\WinPe F:
B. makewinpemedia.cmd /ISO C:\WinPe F:
C. copype.cmd amd64 C:\WinPe
D. dism.exe /Export-Image /SourceImageFile:C:\WinPE\boot.wim/SourceIndex:1/DestinationImageFile:F:\boot.wim
E. copype.cmd x86 C:\WinPe
Correct Answer: AE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/winpe-create-usb-bootable-drive

QUESTION 3
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/usmt/usmt-scanstate-syntax

QUESTION 4
You have a reference image of the 64-bit version of Windows 10. The reference image contains an application named
App1. You need to ensure that App1 is pinned to the Start menu.
Which tool or tools should you use to apply the custom Start layout to the image?
A. image.exe and Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE)
B. dism.exe and File Explorer
C. Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT)
D. Windows System Image Manager (Windows SIM)
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/customize-the-start-screen

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are configuring a reference computer for a new UEFI-based deployment image of the 64-bit version of Windows 10.
The reference computer has two physical hard disk drives.
You need to configure a partition on Disk 0 to support a recovery partition.
Solution: You create a primary partition of 250 MB that uses the NTFS file system.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
This partition must be at least 300 MB
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/configure-uefigpt-based-hard-
drive-partitions

QUESTION 6
You plan to deploy an image of Windows 10 to several computers by using an answer file.
You need to identify which configuration pass you must use to configure each of the following settings:
Manufacturer in the Microsoft-Windows-Shell-Setup component.
UILanguage in the Microsoft-Windows-International-Core component
Which configuration pass should you use for each setting? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 7
You have an image of Windows 10.
You obtain a feature update for Windows 10.
You need to include the feature update in the image. The solution must minimize the size of the image.
What should you do?
A. Mount the image. Run dism.exe /Add-Package, and then run dism.exe /Optimize-Image. Unmount the image.
B. Deploy the image to a computer. Install the feature update. Optimize the drive, and then capture the image.
C. Download the new installation media for Windows 10. Install Windows 10 on a computer, and then capture the
image.
D. Mount the image. Run dism.exe /Add-Package, and then run dism.exe /Cleanup-Wim. Unmount the image.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is located on a network that is disconnected
from the Internet.
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
You download the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) setup on Computer1.
You need to create an installation source on a USB drive that can be used to install Windows ADK on Server1.
Which installation option should you use when you run the Windows ADK setup on Computer1?
A. /list
B. /layout
C. /ceip
D. /features
E. /installpath
Correct Answer: B
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-gb/library/dn621908.aspx

QUESTION 9
You use an answer file to automate the installation of Windows 10.
You need to add your company\\’s support information to computers that you deploy.
Which component should you add to the answer file?
A. Microsoft-Windows-Setup
B. Microsoft-Windows-PnpCustomizationsNonWinPE
C. Microsoft-Windows-Shell-Setup
D. Microsoft-Windows-Deployment
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/customize/desktop/unattend/microsoft-windows-shell-
setup-oeminformation

QUESTION 10
You have a reference computer that runs Windows 10. The computer contains a provisioning package named
Package1.ppkg. Package1.ppkg is located in C:\Packages\.
You plan to create an image of the reference computer.
You run sysprep.exe on the computer, and then you start the computer by using Windows Preinstallation Environment
(Windows PE).
You need to ensure that the image uses the least amount of disk space possible.
How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are building a new image of Windows 10 that contains a push-button reset solution.
You need to test whether push-button reset works as expected.
Solution: From Windows 10, you open the Settings app, you click Update and security, and then you click Recovery.
From Reset this PC, you click Get Started.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
References: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/12415/windows-10-recovery-options https://docs.microsoft.com/en-
us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/push-button-reset-overview


QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 has the Windows Assessment and
Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) installed.
You are building a new image of Windows 10.
You need to specify how the hard disk will be partitioned during the Windows 10 installation.
What should you do?
A. Mount the Install.wim file.
B. Mount the Boot.wim file.
C. Modify the Winpeshl.ini file.
D. Create an answer file.
E. Modify the Windows.ini file.
F. Create a provisioning package.
G. Load a catalog file (.clg).
H. Create a cabinet file (.cab).
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have an image of Windows 10 for a new desktop computer model.
You plan to deploy the computer to two regions.
You need to add a language interface pack to the image.
Which parameter should you specify when you run dism.exe?
A. /Add-Capability
B. /Add-Driver
C. /Add-Package
D. /Add-ProvisionedAppxPackage
E. /Apply-CustomDataImage
F. /Apply-Image
G. /Apply-Unattend
H. /Export-Image
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/add-and-remove-language-
packs-offline-using-dism

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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam MS-202: Microsoft 365 Messaging Administrator Certification Transition: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-ms-202.aspx

This exam is intended only for candidates who have taken Exam 70-345: Designing and Deploying Microsoft Exchange Server 2016. If you have not taken Exam 345, you will not earn a certification by taking this exam.

Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions, mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments.

Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.

Messaging Administrators collaborate with the Security Administrator and Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid topology that meets the business needs of a modern organization.

The Messaging Administrator should have a working knowledge of authentication types, licensing, and integration with M365 applications.

Related exams: Exam MS-200 and Exam MS-201

Selected through the exam: Pass4itsure MS-200 dumps and pass4itsure MS-201 dumps

Microsoft MS-202 Skills measured

• Manage modern messaging infrastructure (20-25%)
• Manage mail flow topology (5-10%)
• Manage recipients and devices (10-15%)
• Plan and implement a hybrid configuration and migration (20-25%)
• Secure the messaging environment (35-40%)

Latest effective Microsoft MS-202 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
You have a hybrid deployment of Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 and Microsoft Office 365. In Exchange Online, you
create an archive mailbox for each user.
Users who have a mailbox in the on-premises Exchange organization report that they cannot access their archive
mailbox. You verify that users who have a mailbox in Office 365 can access their archive mailbox successfully.
You need to resolve the issue.
What should you modify?
A. the sharing policy
B. the mailbox permissions
C. the organization relationship
D. the device tenant policy
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/sharing-and-collaboration/set-
organizationrelationship?view=exchange-ps

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a deployment plan that meets the technical requirements for the mailbox databases. What
should you include in the recommendation?
A. Deploy 10 Exchange servers to the main office and one Exchange server to each branch office. Create two mailbox
databases on each server.
B. Deploy one Exchange server to each office. Create two mailbox databases on each server. Create copies of the
databases on another server.
C. Deploy 11 Exchange servers to the main office and one Exchange server to each branch office. Create one mailbox
database on each server.
D. Deploy one Exchange server to the main office and two Exchange servers to each branch office. Create one mailbox
database on each server.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that has the topology shown in the following exhibit.

The organization contains the servers shown in the following table.

The organization contains the mailboxes shown in the following table.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 organization that has the following configurations:
The forest functional level of Active Directory is Windows Server 2008 R2
The domain controllers in Active Directory Windows Server 2012 R2.
The Exchange servers run Windows Server 2012 Datacenter
You plan to upgrade the organization to Exchange Server 2019.
You need to ensure that the organization meets the minimum supported requirements for the upgrade.
What should you do?
A. Raise the forest functional level to Windows Server 2012 R2
B. Upgrade the domain controllers to Windows Server 2016
C. Upgrade the Exchange servers to Windows Server 2016
D. Upgrade the Exchange servers to Windows Server 2019
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/plan-and-deploy/system-requirements?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment that contains the users shown in the following table.

You need to provide each user with an archive mailbox that is stored in Exchange Online.
Which admin center should you use to perform the configuration for each user? To answer, drag the appropriate admin
centers to the correct users. Each admin center may be used once, or not at all.
You may to drag the split bar between the panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 6
You need to implement a solution that meets the technical requirements for the retention of junk email, sent items, and
deleted items.
What is the minimum number of retention policies and retention tags you should use? To answer, select the appropriate
options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 7
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You are auditing the litigation hold on the mailboxes of the company\\’s research and development department.
You discover that the mailbox of a user named User1 has a Litigation Hold enabled.
You need to discover who placed the Litigation hold on the mailbox of User1, and when the Litigation Hold was
enabled.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From the Exchange admin center, run an In-place eDiscovery and Hold report.
B. From the Exchange admin center, run a per-mailbox Litigation Hold report.
C. From PowerShell, run the Get-MailboxStatistics cmdlet.
D. From PowerShell, run the Get-Mailbox cmdlet.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Fabrikam.com. You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019
organization that contains two Mailbox servers. The servers are members of a database availability group (DAG).
You plan to implement an Exchange hybrid deployment.
You are evaluating the use of the Exchange Modern Hybrid connection option during the hybrid deployment.
What are two benefits of using Exchange Modern Hybrid instead of Exchange Classic Hybrid? Each correct answer
presents part of solutions.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. uses Organization Configuration Transfer to configure Exchange Online
B. allows federated sharing between the on-premises organization and Exchange Online
C. allows the use of Microsoft Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for on-premises users
D. eliminates the need to purchase publicly trusted certificates for communication between the on-premises organization
and Exchange Online
E. preserves mailbox quotas when mailboxes are moved between the on-premises organization and Exchange Online
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a solution to meet the technical requirements for the managers. What should you recommend
creating for the mailboxes of the managers?
A. a transport agent
B. a separate Exchange server
C. a separate mailbox database
D. an audit policy
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default domain named contoso.com.
Users report that email messages from a domain named fabrikam.com are identified as spam even though the
messages are legitimate.
You need to prevent messages from fabrikam.com from being identified as spam.
What should you do?
A. Edit the default mail flow rule to bypass the spam filter.
B. Create a new remote domain.
C. Edit a spam filter policy.
D. Create a new malware filter policy.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than once correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Exchange server 2019 organization.
You discover that users rarely delete items from their Sent Items folder and their Deleted Items folder.
You need to recommend a solution to automatically reduce the size of the primary mailbox of each user.
Solution: You recommend configuring a retention policy that contains two default policy tags.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
This would work and it needs no user intervention but it would apply to all folders. Furthermore, you only need one
default tag, not two.

QUESTION 13
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains 5,000 mailboxes.
You purchase a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription and create a hybrid deployment. You configure all MX records to point to
Exchange Online.
You purchase 2,000 Microsoft 365 E5 licenses, and you migrate 2,000 mailboxes to Exchange Online. You need to
identify which additional licenses must be purchased. The solution must minimize costs.
Which licenses should you identify?
A. an Exchange Online Protection (EOP) license for each on-premises mailbox
B. Microsoft Office 365 Enterprise E1 licenses for the on-premises users
C. Enterprise Mobility + Security E5 licenses for the Exchange Online users
D. Microsoft Azure Active Directory Premium P2 licenses for all users
Correct Answer: B
References: https://products.office.com/en-gb/business/compare-more-office-365-for-business-plans

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Valid information provided by Cisco officials

010-151 DCTECH – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/dctech.html

The Cisco Certified Technician (CCT) for Data Center validates a technician’s competency in the following areas

• Basic Cisco NX-OS configuration
• Cisco Data Center products and hardware components with an emphasis on the Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS).

The curriculum covers remedial services (HW break fix) on Cisco Data Center products, including hardware replacement,software and configuration backup and restore, check safety and environmental requirement, recognize connection type and cable requirement, and perform basic physical layer troubleshooting. The Cisco Certified Technician (CCT) should be competent in the following areas; basic Cisco NX-OS configuration, Cisco Data Center products and hardware components.

The Cisco Certified Technician should be able to perform remedial services (HW break fix) on Cisco Data Center products,including software and configuration backup and restore, check safety and environmental requirement, recognize connection type and cable requirement, and perform basic physical layer troubleshooting.

Latest effective Cisco 010-151 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which three components are hot swappable in a Cisco UCS Blade Server and Chassis? (Choose three.)
A. Fabric Extender
B. Power supply
C. Heat sink
D. SAS Hard Drive
E. 2x8GB Kit DIMMs
F. Mezzanine card
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

Which item does F represent?
A. HDD 1
B. TFP Module
C. SuperCap Module
D. CPU 2
E. CMOS Battery
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.What is the name of this rack-mount server?
A. Cisco UCS C220 Rack-Mount Server
B. Cisco UCS C240 Rack-Mount Server
C. Cisco UCS C420 Rack-Mount Server
D. Cisco UCS C460 Rack-Mount Server
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which two commands display the version of Cisco NX-OS code that the device is currently running on? (Choose two.)
A. show version
B. show module
C. show interface
D. show boot
E. show license
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.Which statement correctly identifies the front panel LEDs on the Cisco UCS C220 Server?
A. A is power button and power status LED; B is identification button and LED; C is system status LED; D is network link
activity LED.
B. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification
button and LED.
C. A is system status LED; B is network link activity LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification
button and LED.
D. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is identification button and LED; D is power button and
power status LED.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector?
A. dual-mode
B. single-mode
C. straight-mode
D. multi-mode
E. subscriber-mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which method does FCIP use to enable connectivity of geographically distributed Fibre Channel SANs over IP?
A. routing
B. tunneling
C. handshaking
D. transporting
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
To do a password recovery on a Cisco NX-OS Switch, which option shows the correct syntax to display the bootflash
contents at the switch(boot)#?
A. display bootflash:
B. show bootflash:
C. dir bootflash:
D. find bootflash:
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about DIMM replacement in Cisco UCS Servers are true? (Choose two.)
A. In blade servers, DIMMs can be installed in either 1, 2, 4, or 8 DIMMs per channel.
B. Rack-mount and blade servers have memory fault LEDs that indicate which DIMM requires attention.
C. In servers that require pairs of DIMMs, the pairs must be identical (manufacturer, size, part #, and so on).
D. If the memory in a server is not fully populated, you can install DIMMs in any open slot.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about the Cisco Nexus 5596UP switch are true? (Choose two.)
A. Its power supplies and fan trays are hot-swappable.
B. It supports unified ports.
C. It is offered in a one-rack-unit form factor.
D. It has one expansion slot.
E. It supports up to 96 10G BASE-T ports.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
Which two Cisco Nexus switches provide the foundation of the Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7718 switch
B. Cisco Nexus 9508 switch
C. Cisco Nexus 7710 switch
D. Cisco Nexus 93128TX switch
E. Cisco Nexus 6004 switch
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
Which three firmware components does the Host Upgrade Utility upgrade? (Choose three.)
A. Fabric Interconnect firmware
B. LAN on Motherboard
C. Cisco UCS Manager
D. CIMC
E. System BIOS
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.Which option should you select to get the output of the show tech-support detail command for the Cisco UCS B-Series
blade?
A. A – ucsm
B. B – chassis
C. C – fabric-extender
D. D – rack-server
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.Which three options are features of the Cisco UCS 6248UP Fabric Interconnect front panel? (Choose three.)
A. Console port
B. FCoE port
C. 10 Gb/s port
D. Fan module
E. USB port
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
Which command can be used to exit to EXEC mode from this current mode?
switch(config-if) #
A. Ctrl-C
B. Ctrl-L
C. quit
D. exit
E. end
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 16
Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch?
A. first-generation supervisor module
B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2)
C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E)
D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E)
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
What is the wire transmission speed for 100GBASE-ER4 Ethernet?
A. 100 Mb/s
B. 1 Gb/s
C. 10 Gb/s
D. 100 Gb/s
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
On the Sensors page from the CIMC view, which four tabs are displayed to view further information? (Choose four.)
A. Power Supply
B. Fan
C. Memory
D. CPU
E. LEDs
F. Temperature
Correct Answer: ABEF

QUESTION 19
What is the correct path to verify the Overall Status of Chassis 1 | Server 3?
A. Equipment Tab > Chassis > Chassis 1 > Servers > Server 3 Status tab
B. Equipment Tab > Chassis > Chassis 1 > Servers > Server 3 General tab
C. Equipment Tab > Chassis > Chassis 1 > Servers > Server 3 FSM tab
D. Servers Tab > Chassis > Server 3 General tab
E. Status Tab > Chassis > Chassis 1 > Servers > Server 3
F. Admin Tab > Chassis > Chassis 1 > Servers > Server 3 General tab
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which two statements about the Ethernet media are true? (Choose two.)
A. A twisted-pair cable system has each pair of wires twisted together to reduce electromagnetic interference.
B. Compared to multimode fiber, the single-mode fiber is designed for shorter distances with higher cost.
C. 40 Gigabit Ethernet twinax cables deploy Enhanced Quad Small Form Factor Pluggable (QSFP+) connectors.
D. The twinax cables can be found in either a shielded twisted-pair or an unshielded twisted-pair variation.
Correct Answer: AC

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Latest effective Cisco 700-265 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which component of Cisco Stealthwatch uses sophisticated security analytics to accelerate threat response time?
A. network control
B. investigation
C. threat protection
D. anomaly detection
E. granular visibility
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which three options are Cisco Advanced Threat Solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System
B. Stealthwatch
C. remote access VPN
D. identity and access control
E. web security
F. cognitive Threat analytics
Correct Answer: ADF

QUESTION 3
Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations
B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services
C. Cisco Identity Services Engine
D. Cisco Security Manager
E. Cisco TrustSec
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which two attack vectors are protected by cloud app security? (Choose two.)
A. mobile
B. cloud apps
C. voicemail
D. email
E. campus and branch
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which two Cisco business values demonstrate features of end-to-end protection and protection across the attack
continuum? (Choose two.)
A. completeness
B. cost effectiveness
C. protection
D. control
E. flexibility
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
How does Cisco TrustSec help secure sensitive data and regulating network access?
A. email security
B. leverage file reputation
C. ensure compliance
D. provide customer choice
E. traffic tagging
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
In addition to protection, control, and flexibility, which two business values are included in Cisco value propositions?
(Choose two.)
A. Support
B. Completeness
C. Cost effectiveness
D. Scalability
E. Integration
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which ISR appliance di you use if your customer is a small business that requires integrated switching and routing and
WAN redundancy?
A. FirePower 8000 secirs
B. Cisco 4000 Series ISR
C. Cisco 800 Series ISR
D. FirePower 7000 Series
E. FirePower 2100 Series
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which trait of Cisco security solutions addresses the worry that a customer\\’s security provider will leave the market or
reach end-of-life?
A. familiarity
B. functionality
C. robustness
D. cost
E. stability
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 10
Which Cisco business values are demonstrated by increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality,
and increased visibility?
A. protection
B. completeness
C. cost effectiveness
D. control
E. flexibility
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which two aspects of Cisco solutions save customers money? (Choose two.)
A. 100 percent effectiveness
B. Faster integration
C. Fewer resources to manage
D. Lowest-cost solutions
E. Incentives programs
F. Complete replacement of current infrastructure
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
Which NGIPS appliance do you use if you customer is at the enterprise level and requires modular architecture that is
scalable?
A. FirePOWER 2100 Series
B. ASA 7000 Series
C. FirePOWER 8000 Series
D. Cisco 4000 Series ISR
E. Cisco 800 Series ISR
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which option describes how partners can help customers using their unique relationship with Cisco award-winning
resources and support?
A. Be the first to receive new innovations
B. Take advantage of incentives programs
C. Access 24-hour support around the word
D. Earn higher margins on each deal sold
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which phase of the software lifecycle deals with anticipating customer needs and bundling and adding products
accordingly?
A. plan and supply
B. upsell and cross sell
C. renew
D. land and expand
E. know and grow
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which three options are products and benefits of the mobile threat-centric solution? (choose three)
A. AnyConect
B. URL filter
C. Enhanced access and usage control with ISE
D. Enforced device security policies with Meraki
E. Secure off-network connection with Stealthwatch
F. CRD and network Analytics
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 16
How does the Cisco policy and access solution handle a changing user base in growing company?
A. Cisco delivers a flexible and scalable security solution framework that can adapt to changing customer needs.
B. Cisco architecture offers the lowest TCO by providing product that integrate, which lowers the cost of IT setup,
management, and maintenance.
C. Cisco Talos Security Intelligence and Research Group integrates into all security solutions, which provides advanced
protection against new threats.
D. Cisco provides you the ability to monitor and restrict application usage. As applications become more complex, Cisco
provides the flexibility to control all or subsets of the application.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which three options are a result of utilizing a fragmented security model? (Choose three.)
A. additional fragmentation that reduces the risk from malicious files
B. fragmented security that provides disbursed protection
C. decreased network accessibility through multiple applications
D. patchworked applications that continually increase in complexity
E. individual components pieced together that are incompatible
F. multiple points of access that can be exploited by cyber criminals
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 18
Which two options are products and benefit of the campus and branch threat-centric solutions? (choose two)
A. Trojan and malware protection with NGIPS
B. Enhanced zero-day and DDoS attacks through NGFW
C. Cloud security policy management through CDO
D. Fuzzy fingerprint
E. Trusted security
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
Which issue do customers with vulnerable cloud issues deal with (choose three)
A. invisible employee apps usage
B. appropriate level of access
C. solution that does not extend to cloud
D. lack of protection from cloud apps
E. complex mobile management
F. expensive malware attacks
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 20
Which three options are Cisco industry differentiators? (choose three)
A. uncontested threat blocking
B. unparalleled commitment to security
C. unmatched support and services
D. lowest price
E. largest selection of security solutions
F. best-in-class technologies
Correct Answer: BCF

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QUESTION 1
You are the administrator of a Microsoft Dynamics 365 instance.
Staff want to take advantage of Microsoft Exchange inbox folders in Microsoft Outlook to sort and track the email messages they have with customers.
Which action must you take to fulfill their request?
A. Use smart matching.
B. Use folder-level tracking.
C. Use tracking tokens.
D. Use correlation to track email conversations.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your are implementing Microsoft Dynamics 365 in an organization where many users have former versions of Microsoft Outlook and Windows.
What is the earliest supported scenario for Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook?
A. Windows 8 and Microsoft Office 2010
B. Windows 7 SP1 and Microsoft Office 2010
C. Windows 8.1 and Microsoft Office 2013
D. Windows 10 and Microsoft Office 2016
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You are a system administrator at Contoso, Inc.
You need to ensure that administrative notifications for your production instance are also sent to your external partner.
What should you do?
A. Add the external partner to the deployment administrators group.
B. Create an Office 365 group and forward notifications to the group.
C. Create a security group and forward notifications to the group.
D. Add the external partner as an additional recipient on the production instance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You are a remote sales person using the Microsoft Dynamics 365 app on your tablet.
You need to create new records while in an area with no Internet access.
Which two statements are true about creating records offline? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Recently viewed records cached for offline access can be edited.
B. New records can be edited while they are drafts.
C. New records can be created as drafts while offline.
D. New records can be linked to each other while they are drafts.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
You are a system administrator, and your company recently began using Microsoft Dynamics 365. You need to perform a full copy from a training sandbox instance to one of your production instances. What should you do?
A. Switch the production instance to a sandbox, and perform a full copy from training.
B. Place the production instance in Administration mode, and perform a full copy from training.
C. Perform a full copy from the training instance to the production instance.
D. Switch the training instance to production, and perform a full copy.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are the network administrator for your company.
Management wants to deploy Microsoft Dynamics 365 for the sales division. The company has more than 2 million records, currently stored on-premises, that need to be migrated to Microsoft Dynamics 365. The technology director wants you
to utilize the Data Loader service for the migration process for the fastest possible migration.
What is a prerequisite for running the Data Loader service in this instance?
A. The data must be cleansed before using the Import Data Wizard to migrate it to the cloud.
B. Third-party tools must be installed in order to migrate the data with the Data Loader service.
C. The data set must reside in Azure on the same data center that hosts the company’s Microsoft Dynamics 365 instance.
D. The data must first be converted to CSV files before uploading it with the Import Data Wizard.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You are the system administrator for a company that is deploying Microsoft Dynamics 365 in multiple regions.
You need to ensure that users can only access the instance hosted in their region.
Which two actions should you perform to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create an Access Team for each region, and add the users from that region to the team.
B. Assign the Access Team to the instance hosted on the matching region.
C. Create a Security Group for each region, and add the users from that region to the group.
D. Assign the Security Group to the instance hosted on the matching region.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
You are a system administrator. Staff at your company are reporting that when they load private documents into the Microsoft Dynamics 365 integration with Microsoft SharePoint, other staff members can access those documents.
You need to implement a solution that allows staff to save documents using Microsoft Dynamics 365 so that documents can only be seen by the owner.
What should you do?
A. Configure OneDrive for Business integration with Microsoft Dynamics 365.
B. Run Microsoft SharePoint Integration Wizard, and change the settings.
C. Change the privacy-related privileges in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
D. Change the Office Graph document settings in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You are the technology director for a company that is preparing to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Since sales staff are allowed to bring their own devices to work, you are preparing a list of supported mobile devices that meet the minimum requirements of Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which two mobile device environments should be included in you? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. a tablet with 1 GB of memory running Windows 8.1
B. a 7-inch iPad Mini that has 8 GB of memory and uses Safari
C. a Windows 10 phone that uses the Microsoft Dynamics 365 app
D. a tablet with 2 GB of memory running Windows 7
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You are a technical support specialist for your company and are responsible for supporting employee mobile devices.
The sales department recently began using Microsoft Dynamics 365. Some of the sales staff want to know if they need to use Microsoft Dynamics 365 for phones express to access the Microsoft Dynamics 365 server.
Which type of mobile device configuration requires the use of Microsoft Dynamics 365 for phones express?A. an iOS device with less than a 9-inch screen
B. an Android phone that does not have a supported browser
C. a Windows 10 phone that uses only a supported browser
D. a Windows 8.1 phone that uses the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for phones app
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You are the network administrator for a company that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 and are reviewing all of the licensed users for your organization to ensure all are up to date.
What will occur if you remove a Microsoft Dynamics 365 license from a user?
A. The user can access sandbox instances but not production instances.
B. The user can access all instances but only view data in read-only mode.
C. The user’s account is deleted and cannot access any instances.
D. The user’s account is disabled and cannot access any instances.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You are the technology director for a company that is planning a Microsoft Dynamics 365 implementation. The com currently uses Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012.
You are researching which edition is best to purchase for the company. In which instance is the Enterprise edition required?
A. The sales staff use desktop computers, as well as mobile devices.
B. The sales staff need online / on-premises dual use rights.
C. The sales staff use only a company-issued laptop to access Microsoft Dynamics 365.
D. The company wants all of its applications to be cloud-based.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
As a system administrator, you want to integrate the Office Graph from Microsoft Office 365 into Microsoft Dynamics 365. Which two steps should you take to perform this integration? Each corfeftfl answer presents part of the solution.
A. Set up Microsoft OneNote integration.
B. Enable Microsoft OneDrive for Business integration.
C. Enable Microsoft Office Graph integration.
D. Set up server-based Microsoft SharePoint integration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
You are an administrator for an organization using Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook.
Your users are synchronizing records but want to make a few adjustments on which fields are included in the synchronization.
Who can make this change?
A. users with system administrator privileges
B. users with privileges to use the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook
C. users with privileges to sync to Outlook
D. users with privileges to go offline
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You are the sales manager for a company that has more than 15,000 employees.
You plan to purchase Microsoft Dynamics 365 for your company, although only 750 seats will be required. Management wants all Microsoft Dynamics 365 users to have access to all Microsoft Dynamics 365 applications.
Based on this criteria, which licensing option should you select?
A. Enterprise Edition with APPS-based Licensing
B. Enterprise Edition with Plan-based Licensing
C. Business Edition with Plan-based Licensing
D. Business Edition with APPS-based Licensing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
You are the technology director for a company that is considering a Microsoft Dynamics 365 implementation.
You are researching the type of license subscription you need to purchase.
In which two instances would a User Subscription License be appropriate? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. a sales executive who uses a combination of company and personal devices to access Microsoft Dynamics 365
B. desktop computers in the company’s training room that new sales staff use for training on company applications
C. a company workstation in the marketing department used by everyone on the sales staff
D. a Windows 10 phone that is only used by the sales manager of the company
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 17
You are a system administrator.
You add a new sandbox instance to your ten
How does this affect your storage limit?
A. It will add 10 GB.
B. It will add 2 GB.
C. It will make no change to your storage limit.
D. It will add 5 GB
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You are the technology director for your company.
You need to purchase a subscription to Microsoft Dynamics 365 for the sales staff.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Purchase a Business License Premium subscription to Office 365.
B. Purchase a Microsoft Dynamics 365 subscription
C. Purchase a subscription through a Microsoft Partner.
D. Purchase a Microsoft Dynamics 365 subscription through the Office 365 Admin Portal
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 19
You have a sandbox instance being used for development purposes at your organization. The URL for this instance https://contosoSBXDEV.crm.dynamics.com.
The instance will now be used to test third-party ISV Solutions.
You need to ensure that the instance URL will be https://contosoISVtesting.crm.dynamics.com.
How can you accomplish this goal?
A. Edit the URL on the tenant properties.
B. Create a new instance with the new URL.
C. Edit the URL on the instance properties.
D. Enable domain name on the tenant properties.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
You are the system administrator for your company.
You need to deploy an instance to be used when testing third-party the instance after testing is completed.
Which type of instance should you use to accomplish this goal?
A. preview
B. sandbox
C. development
D. production
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
You have a business process named Know Your Customer. Employees use this business process to capture key information about customers.
You must implement a business process flow (BPF) in Microsoft Dynamics 365 that represents this business process. You specify the name for the BPF as well as the stage names, entities, and stage category that the BPF will use.
You need to complete the BPF implementation.
Which three additional components can you configure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Step Required
B. Check Conditions
C. Wait Conditions
D. Step Display Names
E. Data Fields
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 2
You assign security roles to an owner team and each user on the team.
What effect does the security role that is assigned to the team have on the individual team members?
A. The permissions for the user are used instead of those of the team.
B. The user is granted the least restrictive permissions of the two roles.
C. The permissions for the team are used instead of those of the user.
D. The user is granted the most restrictive permissions of the two roles.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You add a new entity named Parts to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You need to grant all users that have the Salesperson security role read access to the Parts entity.
Which tab of the Security Role page should you use?
A. Business Management
B. Missing Entities
C. Custom Entities
D. Customization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which two field types can you configure as rollup fields? Each correct answer presents a com
A. single line of text
B. floating point number
C. date and time
D. decimal number
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
You export five modified system security roles from a development environment as an unmanaged solution. You solution into a production environment.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the import of the unmanaged solution?
A. Copies of security roles will be created automatically in the production environment.
B. The system security roles in production will be overwritten with the settings imported from the solution.
C. Security roles cannot be imported.
D. The import will fail because system security roles cannot be overwritten by importing a solution.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You add a lookup for contacts to the case form.
You need to display the most recent primary phone number for a contact on the case form while minimizing administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Use a workflow to copy the phone number to a new field on the case when the contact changes.
B. Use a quick view form to display the phone number.
C. Use a web resource to query and display the phone number.
D. Use field mapping during record creation to copy the phone number to a new field on the case.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You need to add the status reason Duplicate to the status value Cancelled for the case entity. What should you do?
A. Add the value to the Cancelled list of the Status field.
B. Add the value to the Cancelled list of the Status Reason field.
C. Using status reason transitions, add the value to the Cancelled status.
D. Using status reason transitions, add the value to the Cancelled status reason.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You create an organization-owned custom entity.
You need to ensure that users can see the custom entity while minimizing the permissions that you grant users.
What should you do?
A. Ask a system administrator to share the records with the users who need access.
B. Grant access to all users and then remove the entity from the sitemap and advanced find. Provide users who need access a direct link to a view of the entity.
C. Grant the appropriate security roles user-level access to the custom entity.
D. Grant the appropriate security roles organization-level access to the custom entity.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You need to use Theme settings to customize the Microsoft Dynamics 365 user interface for a customer. Which three actions can you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Export a theme as part of a solution.
B. Adjust accent colors including hover and selection colors.
C. Change the logo and navigation colors.
D. Change icon colors.
E. Provide entity-specific coloring.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 10
You administer a Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment for a company.
You need to prevent one specific employee from synchronizing data by using Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook without preventing the employee from using Microsoft Dynamics 365 tor Outlook.
What should you do?
A. Set the Web Mail Merge settings to None Selected for the individual’s security role.
B. Set the Sync to Outlook settings to None Selected for the individual’s security role.
C. Set the Dynamics 365 Address Book settings to None Selected for the individual’s security role.
D. Set the Use Dynamics 365 App for Outlook to None Selected for the individual’s security role.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two statements are exclusive to managed solutions and not unmanaged solutions? Fach correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. You cannot export the solution.
B. When you remove the solution, all components items included in the solution are removed.
C. You must define entity assets for every entity that you add to the solution.
D. You must select a publisher for the solution
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
Which two form areas allow you to read from and write to all visible fields?
Each answer presents a complete solution.
A. Header
B. Body
C. Navigation
D. Footer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You create a business rule for the Account entity.
The business rule must run when you import account records. Which two conditions must be true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. The scope was set to Account.
B. The scope was set to Entity.
C. A business rule snapshot was successful.
D. A business rule is active.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
You are creating a set of system views.
Which three options can you configure for the views? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. read, write, and delete permissions
B. append, assign, and share permissions
C. default sort order for results
D. the widths of each column
E. the columns to display
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 15
You configure a 1:N relationship between two entities and set the cascade rule for deletion to Referential.
What effect does deleting the parent record have on any child records?
A. The child records remain but the link to the parent record is removed.
B. The parent record cannot be deleted until all of the child records are first deleted.
C. The child records are deleted and the link to the parent record shows as deleted.
D. The child records are deleted along with the parent record.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
You implement Microsoft Office 365 groups for a company.
You need to ensure that all members of a specific security role can see and use an Office 365 group.
Which privilege should you assign to the security role?
A. ISV Extensions
B. Execute Workflow Job
C. Act on behalf of another user
D. Browse Availability
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
You need to provide users that have the Sales manager security role access to multiple business process flows (BPFs). Which two statements regarding role driven BPFs are true?
A. Users can select a default BPF for all records.
B. If a user does not have access to the current process that is applied to a record, options will be disabled.
C. Set Order defines the order in which BPFs are viewed.
D. You must use teams to control which groups of users have access to a BPF.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 18
You install a unmanaged solution named SolutionA that has a dependency on another unmanaged solution named SolutionB . What is the outcome when you attempt to uninstall SolutionB?
A. SolutionB and all components that are not dependencies of SolutionA are removed.
B. The system prevents you from deleting SolutionB .
C. SolutionB and all related components are removed.
D. The container for SolutionB is removed, but all its components remain.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
You need to install the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook on your device. What should you do?
A. In Settings, open Apps for Dynamics 365.
B. Add your user name to the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook eligible user list.
C. Enable the option to automatically add the app to Outlook.
D. Download and install the app from Microsoft AppSource.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
You are designing a managed solution that will be deployed to another part of the business. Users may want to customize specific parts of the solution after the solution is installed.
Which capability represents a managed property that users can configure;’
A. the ability to change the display name of a system entity
B. the ability to reassign a system dashboard
C. the ability to rename a web resource
D. the ability to add forms to a custom entity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
You plan to implement a server-based integration between Microsoft Dynamics 365 and SharePoint Online. Which two statements are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. You only need to sign in to Microsoft Dynamics 365 to access documents stored in SharePoint.
B. SharePoint actions including Alert Me, Download a Copy, and Copy Shortcut are supported.
C. You do not need to implement a list component.
D. Users can create folders in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 22
You implement Microsoft Dynamics 365 for customers.
A customer reports that their sales support staff is taking too much time updating the probability on opportunities.
You must display an Editable Grid control when users view the Opportunity entity from the web. You must display a read-only grid when users view opportunities on a tablet device.
What should you do?
A. On the Opportunity entity, clear the Enable for mobile setting.
B. On the Outlook and Mobile Settings page for the Opportunity entity, configure the Organization data download filter.
C. On the Opportunity entity, select the Tablet option for the Microsoft Dynamics 365 Read- only Grid setting.
D. On the Opportunity entity, select the Read-only in mobile setting
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
An organization uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 for lead management
The organization wants to keep leads warm by contacting them weekly.
How should you help your users contact leads on a regular basis by using Relationship Insights?
A. Create a workflow on leads to remind the owner if there has been no activity for seven days.
B. Enable the Relationship Assistant on the card options for “No Activity with Lead.” and change the “Days before notifyingTM” to 7.
C. Enable Email Engagement on the card options for No Activity with Lead,” and change the “Days before notifyingTM” to 7.
D. Enable Relationship Insights with Relationship Analytics to show cards for leads with no activity.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You are using Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You can find your disqualified leads but are unable to delete the ones you have chosen for deletion.
What do you need to do to delete the leads?
A. Ask your system administrator to give you the security permissions to delete leads.
B. Ask your system administrator to give you share permission to delete leads.
C. Reactivate the leads, then delete them.
D. Qualify the leads, and then delete them.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You are a sales manager for a large company that is about to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365.
A company called Fabrikam. Inc. has three divisions within the company that purchase services from your firm.
You have created an account record for each of the three divisions and for Fabrikam. Inc.
and need to link the records.
How should you set up the records to properly link the record for Fabrikam, Inc. with its three divisions using Microsoft Dynamics 365 account management?
A. Fabrikam, Inc. is a Primary Contact
B. Fabrikam. Inc. is a Parent account.
C. Fabrikam. Inc. is a Parent Customer.
D. Fabrikam, Inc. is a Child account.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A customer accepts a quote for 10 products sold by your organization. The customer agrees to pay for half of the total immediately and pay the other half once the products are received.
How do you track this transaction in Microsoft Dynamics 365 so the accounting department will understand the transaction?
A. Create a new invoice that includes all of the items sold to the customer, and set the invoice to the Partial Fulfilled status reason.
B. Create a new invoice that includes all of the items sold to the customer, and set the invoice to the Partial Paid status reason.
C. Create a new invoice that includes half of the items sold to the customer, and set the invoice to the Complete Fulfilled status reason.
D. Create a new invoice that includes half of the items sold to the customer, and set the invoice to the Complete Paid status reason.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Based on a conversation with a potential customer, you think there may be a Lead record for the customer in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You need to find the disqualified lead so that you can review the activity history on the lead.
Where are two places you can find this information? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Disqualified Leads view
B. Advanced Find
C. Closed Leads view
D. Leads Lookup view
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
An organization uses goals aligned with fiscal periods.
The fiscal periods were never set up and will now need to be aligned with the organization’s actual fiscal year and period. What will happen to the goal records that use the old fiscal period when the settings are updated?
A. Goals will automatically set the date range to match the new fiscal periods.
B. Goals will become inactive until they are manually aligned with the new fiscal periods.
C. Fiscal periods cannot be changed when used by active goals. Deactivate the goals while adjusting the fiscal period.
D. Goals will continue to run using the old fiscal periods. A user can manually update the goals if needed.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You are a sales manager for your company.
In order to improve sales, you want Microsoft Dynamics 365 to analyze the daily actions and communications of your sales staff. In addition, you would like the analysis data to be used to remind your sales people of upcoming activities and
create actionable items to keep them focused.
Which feature of Microsoft Dynamics 365 performs these functions?
A. Auto Capture
B. Relationship Assistant
C. Email Engagement
D. Site Map Designer
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You are working with an organization that has extended its reporting in Microsoft Dynamics 365 with Power BL The organization wants to use the Power BI dashboards and tiles inside Dynamics 365. Which two options are available? Each
correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Once Power BI is enabled for the organization, a complete Power BI Dashboard can be added as a personal dashboard.
B. Once Power BI is enabled for the organization, a Power BI tile can be added to a personal dashboard.
C. A System Administrator can add a Power BI Dashboard in Microsoft Dynamics 365 on a system dashboard.
D. A System Administrator can add a Power BI tile in Microsoft Dynamics 365 on a system dashboard.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
You are the sales manager for a company that utilizes Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Your sales department offers seasonal pricing on many of its products by using price lists which are then deactivated at the close of each season,
Which two outcomes occur as a result of deactivating these price lists? Each selection represents a complete answer.
A. The prices are removed from the default price list field for all of the company s products.
B. Any pre-existing opportunities associated with those price lists will continue to use them.
C. Any existing sales transactional records will automatically be deactivated until a new price list is created.
D. Any existing sales transactional records will automatically associate with the default price list.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You are using Microsoft Dynamics 365 to track competitors.
A user has closed an opportunity as lost but the user forgot to add the correct competitor in the process.How should you instruct the user to ensure the correct competitor is tracked?
A. Ask the user to open the opportunity, close record associated with the opportunity, and add the competitor.
B. Ask the user to reopen the opportunity, and add the competitor association directly to the opportunity.
C. Ask the user to reopen the opportunity, repeat the close process, and add the competitor during this process.
D. Ask the user to change the competitor association on the opportunity record.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You are a sales executive for a sates organization that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365. You are doing a global search for the name of a contact that you have not communicated with in over a year. You are using a partial value search, but the
global search is unable to find the contact record.
What is a reason that would prevent global search from finding the record?
A. Only an administrator can implement global searches.
B. The record for this contact is currently deactivated.
C. You cannot use partial values in a global search.
D. Global search only searches account and opportunity records.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You receive an email from a person who was referred to your organization by a third party.
You track the email and create a Lead for the prospect After a few emails exchanged between you and the prospect you realize that the service they are want is not a service your company offers.
How do you capture this information in Microsoft Dynamics 365?
A. Disqualify the Lead.
B. Close the Lead as Lost.
C. Untrack the emails exchanged with the prospect
D. Qualify the Lead. Close the Opportunity as Lost.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You are working with a sates division to better manage their sales processes by better utilizing the functionality of Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You recommend using Relationship Insights to better analyze customer-interaction data to improve sales efforts.
What are two features of Relationship Insights that can be used to accomplish this? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Auto Capture
B. Data Loader Service
C. Relationship Assistant
D. Sales Insights
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
You are a sales person for a large automobile dealership.
You created a lead within Microsoft Dynamics 365 for a potential customer who was interested in a current sales event at your dealership. The potential customer selected a new car but was unable to finance it due to bad credit The potential
customer has given up for the time being.
How should you modify the record to update it for this sales opportunity?
A. dose as Lost
B. dose as Won
C. dose as Disqualified
D. dose as Cancelled
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You are using Microsoft Dynamics 365 to sell products in different currencies. The currency exchange rates are updated on a regular basis.
You need to anticipate the impact of the exchange rates on your analytics and KPIs.
What are all the circumstances in which the money fields are updated according to the current exchange rate in Microsoft Dynamics 365?
A. When the exchange rate is updated, all active records with the changed currency are updated.
B. It is updated any time the record is updated in any way.
C. It is updated when the record is created, a money field is updated, or the status changes.
D. When the currency is added to a record, the exchange rate is set until the currency field is changed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
You need visibility to all of your Opportunities to better analyze the information to decide how best to progress with each. What is unique to a Personal View of Opportunities?
A. You can share them.
B. You can export them.
C. You can view them.
D. You can use Charts with them.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
You are creating Word Templates for a customer using Microsoft Dynamics 365.
The customer needs a Word Template for the account entity and wants to merge data records related to the account
Which related records can be included in the Word Templates?
A. only records related in N:1 and N:N relationships
B. only records related in N:1 and 1:N relationships
C. records related in 1:N. N:1. and N:N relationships
D. only records in an N:1 relationship
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You are using Microsoft Dynamics 365 to track your competitors.
You want to take full advantage of the “Win/Loss” report that is available for competitors.
What two steps should your users take to track competitors to get reliable results from this report? Each answer represents a part of
the solution.
A. Track competitors on sales literature.
B. Track competitors on open opportunities.
C. Track competitors on opportunities closed as Lost
D. Track competitors on the products used.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 19
You have been working with a potential customer for some company.
You need to disqualify the lead in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
time and learn that they are purchasing the product from another
When disqualifying the lead, which option should you select?A. Disqualify > Lost to competitor
B. Disqualify > Lost
C. Disqualify
D. Disqualify > Reject Lead
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
You are a sales executive for a sales organization that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365. You want to create your own personal views within Dynamics 365. How can you perform this task?
A. Use the Advanced Find tool to create personal views.
B. Use Global Search to create personal views.
C. Use the Quick Find tool to create personal views.
D. Use an Editable Grid to create personal views.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
You are using Price Lists specific to campaigns.
A campaign has recently ended, and you deactivated the associated Price List
How are Opportunities. Quotes, and Orders with the campaign-specific price list affected by the deactivation?
A. Those that already have the deactivated Price List can continue to use the Price List as normal.
B. They will need to be manually updated with new the Price List when applicable.
C. Only Opportunities can continue to work with a deactivated Price List. Quotes and Orders require an active Price List
D. Orders require an active Price List All other types can continue to work if the Price List was added prior to deactivation.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
You need to create an Opportunity in Microsoft Dynamics 365 to track potential customers requesting information or pricing would lead you to track the activities of a potential sale.
What are three ways to create such an Opportunity? Each correct answer presents a complete solution,
A. from an email activity
B. from a Lead
C. from a Work Order
D. from a Case
E. manually
Correct Answer: ADE

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QUESTION 1
You attempt to delete a queue in Microsoft Dynamics 365. You are not able to delete the queue.
What are two possible reasons why you cannot delete the queue? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. The queue contains a queue item.
B. The queue has a designated email address.
C. The queue is referenced by a routing rule.
D. The queue has a team owner.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
You create a service level agreement (SLA) for cases where the case priority is critical. The SLA must display a warning after 15 minutes and fail after 30 minutes.
You create a normal priority case at 16:00. You change the priority to critical at 16:15. If no action is taken, how many minutes will elapse before the SLA fails?
A. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 145 minutes
D. 60 minutes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which two actions can you perform by using entitlement channels? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Specify the number of customers allowed to use each channel ___
B. Restrict users from creating cases by using specified channels.
C. Restrict the number of child cases allowed for each parent case with a specified channel.
D. Specify the number of cases allowed for each channel.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment. You implement Field Service. You need to update a work order to indicate that you are traveling to the client.
Which field in the Field Service mobile app should you update?
A. Booking Status
B. Start Time
C. Actual Arrival Time
D. System Status
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You use the Field Service application.
You need to track users and equipment that are available for scheduling.
Which resource type should you use?
A. Bookable Resource
B. Warehouse Resource
C. Resource Group
D. Web Resource
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which two statements regarding the Unified Service Desk (USD) debugger are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Yellow highlights are used to indicate a warning regarding an action call.
B. Red highlights are used to indicate the failure of an event
C. You can view a replacement parameter list.
D. You can run an action call on demand.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
Which two statements regarding Microsoft Power BI dashboards are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Visualizations can display up to 5,000 records.
B. You can use Microsoft One Drive for Business as a data connection.
C. You can examine data by using natural language capabilities.
D. You can add up to six visualizations.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
You need to search for a specific knowledge base article by number.
Which two options can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Service Area
B. Relevance Search
C. Categorized Search
D. Article Template Quick Find
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
You use the interactive service hub for your daily work. You identify a knowledge base article that can assist with an open case for a customer.
You need to send the article to the customer. What should you do?
A. Create a new email record and set the regarding object to the knowledge base article.
B. Use Microsoft Skype for Business to send a link to the customer.
C. Send a link to the customer by using Email a link.
D. Search the knowledge base from within the case, and use the Link Article and Email Content option.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A user selects a case from a queue and studies the queue item details for the case. Which two data points are displayed? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. the user who owns the case
B. the time spent working on the case
C. the queue the case is related to
D. the user working on the case
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
Which queue type is created when you add a user to Dynamics 365?
A. System
B. Personal
C. Escalation
D. Shared
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You manage a Microsoft Dynamics 365 deployment You need to enable editable grids for an entity. What should you do?
A. Customize the entity.
B. Use the System Customizer tool.
C. Configure the Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook add-in.
D. Modify the system settings.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which three of the following are valid survey response actions?
A. Restart Survey
B. Toggle Visibility
C. Auto-Populate
D. End Survey
E. Chain Survey
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 14
The time period for a goal was not set correctly. You need to ensure that a user can correct the goal. What should you do?
A. Change the manager for the goal.
B. Add a new goal metric.
C. Add a child goal with the correct time period that is owned by the user.
D. Add a parent goal with the correct time period that is owned by the user.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You create a Voice of the Customer survey.
You need to configure an automatic response each time a customer completes the survey.
Which feature or component should you use?
A. rule
B. piped data
C. linked question
D. Microsoft Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
You have the Customer service representative security role. You apply a filter to the active case system view. You need to save the view. What should you do?
A. Create a personal view.
B. Save the filtered view.
C. Pin the view.
D. Use Save As and give the view a new name.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
You create and activate an entitlement. The start and end dates for the entitlement are in the future. What is the status of the entitlement?
A. Not started
B. On Hold
C. Pending
D. Waiting
Correct Answer: D
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Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For you convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
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Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed. Server2 and Server3 have the DHCP Server role installed and have several DHCP scopes configured. The IPAM server retrieves data from Server2 and Server3.
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The relevant users and client computer in the domain are configured as shown in the following table.

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QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest functional level is Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to ensure that a domain administrator can recover a deleted Active Directory object quickly. Which tool should you use?
A. Dsadd quota
B. Dsmod
C. Active Directory Administrative Center
D. Dsacls
E. Dsamain
F. Active Directory Users and Computers
G. Ntdsutil
H. Group Policy Management Console
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You plan to deploy a new Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) cluster on a server named Server1.
You need to create the AD RMS service account. The solution must use the principle of least privilege
What should you do?
A. Create a domain user account and add the account to the Account Operators group in the domain.
B. Create a local user account on Server1 and add the account to the Administrators group on Server1.
C. Create a domain user account and add the account to the Domain Users group in the domain.
D. Create a domain user account and add the account to the Administrators group on Server1.
70-742 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain functional level is Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to secure several high-privilege user accounts to meet the following requirements: What should you do?
A. Create a universal security group for the user accounts and modify the Security settings of the group.
B. Add the users to the Windows Authorization Access Group group.
C. Add the user to the Protected Users group.
D. Create a separate organizational unit (OU) for the user accounts and modify the Security settings of the OU.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. You have an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm. The farm contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a server named Server2 to the farm. Server2 runs Windows Server 2016. You remove Server1 from the farm. You need to ensure that you can use role separation to manage the farm. Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Set-AdfsFarmInformation
B. Update-AdfsRelyingPartyTrust
C. Set-AdfsProperties
D. Invoke-AdfsFarmBehaviorLevelRaise
70-742 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. A partner company has a forest named fabrikam.com. Each forest contains one domain. You need to provide access for a group named Research in fabrikam.com to resources in contoso.com. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. What should you do?
A. Create an external trust from fabrikam.com to contoso.com. Enable Active Directory split permissions in fabrikam.com.
B. Create an external trust from contoso.com to fabrikam.com. Enable Active Directory split permissions in contoso.com.
C. Create a one-way forest trust from contoso.com to fabrikam.com that uses selective authentication.
D. Create a one-way forest trust from fabrikam.com to contoso.com that uses selective authentication.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is
exactly the same in each question in this series. Start of repeated Scenario: You work for a company named Contoso, Ltd.
The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. A forest trust exists between contoso.com and an Active Directory forest named adatum.com. The contoso.com forest contains the objects configured as shown in the following table.
Scenario:
Refer to following table:

Group1 and Group 2 contain only user accounts. Contoso hires a new remote user named User3. User3 will work from home and will use a computer named Computed that runs Windows 10. Computed is currently in a workgroup. An administrator named Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group in the contoso.com domain. From Active Directory Users and Computers, you create an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 in the contoso.com domain, and then you create a contact named Contact1 in OU1, An administrator of the adatum.com domain runs the Set-ADUser cmdlet to configure a user named User1 to have a user logon name of [email protected].
End of Scenario:
Admin1 attempts to delete OU1 and receives an error message. You need to ensure that Admin1 can delete OU1. What should you do first?
A. Delete Contact1.
B. Add Admin1 to the Enterprise Admins group.
C. Modify the Object settings for OU1.
D. Disable the Active Directory Recycle Bin.
70-742 pdf Correct Answer: C

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Share Some Citrix Specialist 1Y0-351 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below(1-24)

Exam B
QUESTION 1
Traffic to which destination is sourced from the NetScaler IP (NSIP) by default?
A. NTP servers
B. Clients on the Internet
C. Load-balanced web services
D. Load-balanced authentication services
1Y0-351 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A NetScaler Engineer configures COOKIEINSERT persistence method for an HTTP VServer named ‘myApp’. Many clients do NOT allow the persistence cookie to be set and application sessions fail as a result. All clients are behind a network address translation (NAT) gateway, which will insert the client IP address into an HTTP header called X-Forwarded-For. Which command could the engineer execute to provide persistence for clients while still distributing the requests across the bound services?
A. set lb vserver myApp -persistenceType SOURCEIP
B. set lb vserver myApp -persistenceType NONE -lbmethod SRCIPDESTIPHASH
C. set lb vserver myApp -persistenceType COOKIEINSERT -timeout 0 -cookieName X-Forwarded- For
D. set lb vserver myApp -persistenceType NONE -lb method TOKEN -rule “HTTP.REQ.HEADER(\”X
Forwarded-For\”).VALUE(0)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A NetScaler Engineer has created an SSL virtual server that utilizes SSL services. The engineer needs to configure certificate authentication from the NetScaler to the backend web services. What should the engineer do to meet the requirements outlined in the scenario?
A. Bind a CA Certificate to the SSL Services.
B. Bind a Client Certificate to the SSL Services.
C. Create an SSL policy to present the Client Certificate to the web services.
D. Enable Client Authentication and set Client Certificate to mandatory on the virtual server.
1Y0-351 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which service setting would a NetScaler Engineer use in the command-line interface to limit connections to server resources?
A. -maxReq
B. -maxClient
C. -monThreshold
D. -maxBandwidth
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which statement is true about interface link-state on the NetScaler?
A. Interface link-state is controlled by ifconfig in BSD.
B. Interface link-state is dependent on the HAMON setting.
C. Interface link-state CANNOT be brought down from the NetScaler.
D. Interface link-state on both appliances is unaffected by the force failover command.
1Y0-351 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
In order to configure integrated cache, a NetScaler Engineer would need to reboot the NetScaler when the integrated caching feature is __________ and cache memory limit is set to __________. (Choose the correct set of options to complete the sentence.)
A. enabled; zero
B. disabled; zero
C. enabled; non-zero
D. disabled; non-zero
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two certificate formats are supported when creating a certificate key pair on the NetScaler? (Choose two.)
A. PEM
B. DER
C. PKCS7
D. PKCS12
1Y0-351 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
As a result of connecting two NetScaler interfaces in the same L2 broadcast domain/VLAN (unless link aggregation is configured), the NetScaler will __________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. restart
B. disable one interface
C. cause a network loop
D. disable both interfaces
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Scenario: Users in an organization need to access several web applications daily. Management has asked a NetScaler Engineer to reduce the amount of times users have to enter credentials when accessing web applications. What should the engineer configure to meet this requirement?
A. A load-balancing VServer and an authorization policy
B. An authentication VServer and an authorization policy
C. An authentication VServer and an authentication policy
D. A content switching VServer and an authentication profile
1Y0-351 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
The upgrade script copies the updated NetScaler kernel file to the __________ NetScaler directory. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. /var
B. /flash
C. /nsconfig
D. /flash/boot
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which setting must an engineer ensure is configured before a Subnet IP (SNIP) could be used to communicate with servers on the same network segment?
A. Static route is defined
B. USIP mode is enabled
C. USNIP mode is enabled
D. Default gateway is defined
1Y0-351 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which tool could a NetScaler Engineer use to monitor client-side rendering times for a Web application that is load-balanced by NetScaler?
A. Tcpdump
B. Insight Center
C. Command Center
D. NetScaler Dashboard
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which step could a network engineer take to prevent brute force logon attacks?
A. Enable the Rate Limiting feature.
B. Enable the AAA Application feature.
C. Configure the Access Gateway policies.
D. Configure the Cache redirection policies.
1Y0-351 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A network engineer should enable the Rate Limiting feature of a NetScaler system to mitigate the threat of __________ attack. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. reverse proxying
B. Java decompilation
C. source code disclosure
D. brute force logon attacks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which NetScaler feature could be used to stall policy processing to retrieve information from an external server?
A. Responder
B. HTTP callout
C. AppExpert template
D. EdgeSight monitoring
1Y0-351 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
An engineer has bound three monitors to a service group and configured each of the monitors with a weight of 10. How should the engineer ensure that the members of the service group are marked as DOWN when at least two monitors fail?
A. Re-configure the weight of each monitor to 0.
B. Configure the service group with a threshold of 21.
C. Configure the service group with a threshold of 20.
D. Re-configure the weight of each monitor to 5, and configure the service group threshold to 15.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
A network engineer has noted that the primary node in an HA pair has been alternating as many as three times a day due to intermittent issues. What should the engineer configure to ensure that HA failures are alerted?
A. LACP
B. SNMP
C. Route monitors
D. Failover Interface Set
1Y0-351 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
The disk is full on a NetScaler appliance but NO alerts were generated by the SNMP traps. What is the likely cause of this failed alert?
A. Auditing is not enabled.
B. EdgeSight monitoring is not configured.
C. The threshold was not set for the alarm.
D. Health monitoring has not been enabled.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
What type of protocol does AppFlow use for reporting?
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. HTTP
D. SSL_TCP
1Y0-351 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Scenario: A network engineer monitoring an HTTP service-related issue needs to view only the relevant data pertaining to the service being monitored. The IP address of the back-end service being monitored is 10.10.1.99. The NSIP address is 10.10.1.230. Which command should the engineer execute to monitor data relevant to this issue only in real time?
A. telnet
B. traceroute
C. nsconmsg
D. nstcpdump
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Scenario: A NetScaler environment uses two-factor authentication and the second authentication method is AD. A user logs in to the environment but does NOT receive access to the resources that the user should have access to. How can an engineer determine the AD authentication issue on the NetScaler?
A. Check NSlogs
B. Use nsconmsg
C. Use the cat aaad.debug command
D. Check the authorization configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
A NetScaler is configured with two-factor authentication. A user reported that authentication failed. How can an engineer determine which factor of the authentication method failed?
A. Check NSlog
B. Use nsconmsg
C. Check the dashboard
D. Use cat aaad.debug command
1Y0-351 vce Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
A public SSL certificate on a virtual server is about to expire and the NetScaler engineer needs to renew the certificate before it expires.
Which step must the engineer take to renew the SSL Certificate?
A. Generate a new CSR
B. Recreate the Private Keys
C. Execute CRL Management
D. Update the existing certificate
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
An environment network has:
– High bandwidth
– Low packet loss
– High Round-Trip Time (RTT)
Which TCP profile should an engineer configure for the environment described?
A. Nstcp_default_profile
B. Nstcp_default_tcp_lfp
C. Nstcp_default_tcp_lnp
D. Nstcp_default_tcp_lan
1Y0-351 exam Correct Answer: B

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